Meilleur Avaya 3108 6103 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: 3108
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 6103
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 How do you configure an Audio-only service in the MCU?
A. By selecting a service type and deselecting the multimedia option
B. By removing all video codecs from the video codecs table
C. By selecting all audio codecs from the audio codecs table
D. By selecting a service type and checking the "audio only" checkbox
Answer: D

Avaya examen   3108   3108   3108   3108
Reference:https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8 /documents/100173463(p.24)

NO.2 An administrator would like to enable auto-attendant in Scopia Management.
What must the administrator do to ensure that auto-attendant works properly?
A. Restart the Elite MCU
B. Disable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
C. Enable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
D. Route auto-attendant to the Elite MCU
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 3108   certification 3108
Reference:http://docs.radvision.com/bundle/iv_admin_guide_8 /iv_uc_ms_ag_IVR

NO.3 What are two features that Scopia Elite MCUs provide in a video conferencing deployment?
(Choose two.)
A. Continuous Presence
B. Integration to Microsoft Lync
C. Data Collaboration
D. Gatekeeper access
Answer: A,D

certification Avaya   3108 examen   certification 3108

NO.4 Which statement is correct regarding the Scopia Elite MCUs?
A. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition, Standard Definition, and Voice only ports in the
same conference.
B. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition or Standard Definition ports.
C. The Elite MCUs only support High Definition ports.
D. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition and Voice only ports.
Answer: B

certification Avaya   3108 examen   3108   certification 3108
Reference:http://static.dekom.com/uploads/tx_vidowawi/Videokonferenz-Radvision-ScopiaElite600
0-Series-MCU-Administrator-Guide_V8.0.pdf(page 9)

NO.5 Which action can a user take when using Scopia Mobile?
A. Participate in the conference as audio only
B. Perform most of the moderating functions of the conference
C. Perform all moderating functions of the conference
D. Share data with other participants
Answer: D

Avaya   3108   3108 examen   certification 3108

NO.6 What is the default port used by the PathFinder client to register to the Pathfinder server?
A. 443
B. 3089
C. 8080
D. 8443
Answer: B

certification Avaya   3108 examen   3108 examen   certification 3108
Reference:http://www.radvision.co.kr/NR/rdonlyres/1D144B1C-FA05-4265-AA4EA516E1D2244E/ 0/
%5C%5Cwww.adobe.com(p.9, first bulleted point)

NO.7 What is the minimum number of ports that needs to be opened in the firewall to enable
connectivity through the PathFinder server?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 1000
Answer: B

Avaya examen   3108 examen   certification 3108   certification 3108   3108 examen

NO.8 What can you use to control the Scopia XT Telepresence system?
A. You can use the XT remote control for basic functions.
B. You can only use Scopia Control.
C. You can use both the XT remote control and Scopia Control.
D. You can use the XT remote control for all functions.
Answer: B

certification Avaya   3108   certification 3108   3108

Le meilleur matériel de formation examen Avaya 3108 6103

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Code d'Examen: 3108
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 6103
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An engineer is configuring the VSP 9000 for EDM management, and cannot connect from the
EDM computer to the VSP 9000.
Once logged into the ACLI, which show command is used to see the status of the web server?
A. show vsp edm server
B. show ip web-server
C. show sys webserver
D. show web-server
Answer: D

Avaya examen   certification 6103   6103 examen   6103   6103 examen

NO.3 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using virtualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to increase the
services provided.
By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical routers
Answer: D

Avaya examen   certification 6103   6103 examen   6103
Reference:http://www.avaya.com/usa/resource/assets/factsheet/vsp%209000%20dn4535 %20final
10-10.pdf(page 3, device virtualization)

NO.4 Which multicast technology, used with the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000, allows the
router to determine whether any group members exist on its directly connected networks and
switches?
A. IGAP
B. IGMP
C. DVMRP
D. PIM-SM
Answer: B

certification Avaya   6103   certification 6103   6103
Reference:http://198.152.212.23 /css/P8 /documents/100175888(page 20)

NO.5 Given the following command:
VSP-9012:1S show khi performance
Which Key Health Indicator is only valid for the CP modules?
A. CPU
B. buffer-pool
C. error-count
D. process
E. memory
Answer: A

certification Avaya   6103 examen   certification 6103   6103

NO.6 When troubleshooting an issue with an ERS 8000, running version 7.2, a technician notices
that the "Online" LED is steady amber for longer than 3 minutes. This is an indication of a software
incompatibility.
What is the first step in resolving this issue?
A. Use the show chassis command to look for software versions running on the switch.
B. Use the show compatibility command to verify that all software running is compatible.
C. Reboot the switch using the boot flags to force the switch to auto-update the software.
D. Use the show log command to check the system log for indications of communication problems.
Answer: D

Avaya examen   6103   6103 examen   6103

NO.7 QoS is the ability to manage the performance of data flows by giving treatment to the data
flows, users, and applications.
For which two network problems would QoS be a good solution? (Choose two.)
A. interface duplex mismatch
B. slow route table convergence
C. lack of bandwidth
D. end-to-end delay
E. network loops
Answer: A,E

certification Avaya   6103   6103   6103

NO.8 Which function does the "RS" module for the ERS 8000 provide that the "R" module does not?
A. multiple port mirroring
B. multiple port cloning
C. SMLT functionality
D. extended port monitoring
Answer: C

certification Avaya   6103   6103 examen   6103   6103 examen   certification 6103

Avaya 6006-1 3108 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 6006-1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager (R5.2.1) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3108
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements about the installing and cabling of the Media Gateway G650 are
true?(Choose
two.)
A. Mount the A carrier at the bother of the rack
B. Mount the A carnet in the uppermost position in the rack
C. In a multiple Media Gateway GB50 configuration, the G650s an be allocated in different
racks if long
TDMLAN cables are used to interconnect the 850s.
D. In a multiple Media Gateway G650 configuration put the G65s in the rack with no vertical
pace between
them.
Answer: A,D

certification Avaya   certification 6006-1   6006-1   certification 6006-1

NO.2 Which three settings need to be configured on a Layer 2 device? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. port speed
C. IP address
D. default gateway
F. routing interface
Answer: B,C,D

Avaya examen   6006-1 examen   6006-1 examen

NO.3 What are two ways of obtaining the RFA Module ID (MID) and System ID (SID)?
(Choose two.)
A. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command statuslicense-V .
B. From the CM SAT issue the command list configuration software-versions .
C. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command systat .
D. From the CM SAT issue the command display system-parameters customer-options .
Answer: A,D

Avaya   6006-1 examen   6006-1   6006-1 examen   6006-1

NO.4 At a new deployment the customer has a total of 2,000 subscribers at their main
location. They do not
need redundancy in their solution Which Media ServerMedia Gateway combination should be
used for
this deployment.?
A. S8800 Simplex with G450
B. S8800D with G450
C. S8300D with G430
D. S8800 Duplex with G650
Answer: A

Avaya examen   certification 6006-1   6006-1   6006-1 examen   6006-1

NO.5 A technician is testing calls from IP phones at a remote location operating on a
G450VLSP gateway to
main location served by S83XXG450 over the WLAN Busy tones are received when multiple
calls
between the two locations are already active. Two network regions and G711 and G729
codec server has
been set up Which two steps must be taken to ensure the branch IP phones are using he
minimum WAN
bandwidth when calling main location stations?
(Choose two.)
A. Assign branch IP Phones to the G450 LSP as its call server in ip-network-region 2 form.
B. Assign G.729 as primary codec in the Station Form for the branch IP phones.
C. Use the ip-network-map form to assign the branch IP phones to network region2.
D. Create a third Codec Set and assign to the G450 Gateway in ip-network-region 2 form.
E. Verify calls between NRI and NR2 use G.729 Codec in ip-network-region 1 form.
Answer: CE

Avaya examen   6006-1 examen   certification 6006-1

NO.6 A customer users S8510 server with a Media Gateway he necessary components or
adding additional
DCP phones to the system, including a new G650. Which three tasks need to be performed
while
installing the additional requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cable the two G650 carriers with a TDMLAN Bus Extender cable
B. Se the proper carrier address ID for the second G650 carrier
C. Add additional 2GB of RAM to the SB5 10 server.
D. Remove the right ITMLAN bus terminator from the bottom GB50 carrier and install the bus
terminator
at the left end of the TDWLAN bus on the G650 carrier directly above.
E. The new digital line card must be installed in slot 2 of the new G650.
Answer: A,B,D

certification Avaya   6006-1 examen   certification 6006-1   certification 6006-1   6006-1 examen

NO.7 The Avaya G450 Media Gateway can be configured to function as a DHCP (Dynamic
Host
Configuration Protocol) client DHCP client enable the G450 to receive an IP address from a
DHCP server,
according to the DHCP client-server protocol. As an option, the G-450 DHCP client can also
request to
receive which three types of IP-related information? (Choose three.)
A. a list all H 248 Media Gateways in the system
B. a Domain Name
C. a list of default routers
D. a list of all registered IP Phones
E. a list of available DNS servers
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya examen   certification 6006-1   6006-1 examen   6006-1 examen   6006-1 examen

NO.8 A Customer has 1200 IP phones in their solution and they are looking for redundancy
and load
balancing How many CLAN s are recommended for their IP phone registration and signaling?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

Avaya   6006-1   6006-1 examen

Certification Avaya de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 3101 7003.1 133-S-713.4, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 3101
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Communication Manager and CM Messaging - Embedded Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 7003.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 133-S-713.4
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Implementation Exam (beta))
Questions et réponses: 237 Q&As

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NO.1 Where are greetings, such as the pre-recorded messages an agent hears when they log in or the
messages played to a customer during a virtual job, stored in a Proactive Contact with CTI solution?
A.Avaya CM
B.AES Server
C.Proactive Contact CPU
D.Proactive Contact Digital Switch
Answer:A

Avaya   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.2 You are configuring a Proactive Contact 4.X solution for your customer. They do not use the same result
codes that the dialer uses. They use a short four-character description. Which Supervisor function should
you use to ensure that your customer's host will understand the Avaya completion codes?
A.translate
B.merge
C.fill
D.format
Answer:A

Avaya examen   133-S-713.4 examen   certification 133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4

NO.3 Which parameter heading is correct to use in the opmon.cfg file for Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.DIALBACK
B.DIALIN
C.SOFTDIAL
D.DEDHEAD
Answer:C

certification Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.4 Given the following command: icall %12 %13 1 16144691010 Which function in swit is performed by
this command?
A.It tests incoming channel 12 by placing a call to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 13.
B.It provides a monitoring channel 12 to listen to channel 13 for a call placed to 16144691010.
C.It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 13 to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 12.
D.It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 12 to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 13.
Answer:D

certification Avaya   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.5 Which Avaya software is used to communicate between Communication Manager and Avaya
Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.Avaya CT
B.AES
C.CMS
D.MAPD
Answer:B

Avaya examen   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4

NO.6 How does Proactive Contact move digitized messages from the CPU to the Large Port Voice Card
(LPVC)?
A.Remote Copy (RCP)
B.Network File System (NFS)
C.File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
D.Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Answer:B

Avaya   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4

NO.7 Which Proactive Contact 4.X hardware component in a hard dialer setup performs dialing functions
and call progress analysis, plays messages, and bridges agents to called parties?
A.UPS
B.CPU
C.digital switch
D.access server
Answer:C

certification Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.8 Which Avaya software is used to provide consolidated reporting with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X and
other Avaya communication solutions?
A.CMS
B.WebLM
C.Avaya IQ
D.Analyst
Answer:C

Avaya examen   certification 133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen

Avaya meilleur examen 3001 3000.3 3203, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 3001
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Configuration and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3000.3
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Small and Medium Enterprise (SME) Communications Solutions Exam)
Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3203
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Messaging Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Aplication can be used in Conjunction with one-X Portal to provide full softphone and call handing
capability for us
A. Office Voice Portal
B. Office Video Softphone
C. Office Phone Manager Pro
D. Office Softconsole
Answer: B

Avaya examen   3000.3 examen   3000.3   3000.3   3000.3 examen

NO.2 Which item must be completed for an IP Office user to be counted in CCR as an agent?
A. User must be defined as an agent in one-X Portal.
B. force Account Code must be checked on the user s Supervisor tab.
C. CCR Agent Must be checked on the user s Supervisor tab.
D. User must be a member of a hunt group.
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 3000.3   3000.3 examen   certification 3000.3   3000.3   3000.3 examen

NO.3 An IP Office with Embedded Voicemail (EVM) has the time set using the system telephone. Each time
the IP Office reboots the time changes to the wrong time. Which Windows command can be used to
determine if there is a time server on the network causing the change.?
A. time
B. time server
C. net time
D. get time
Answer: C

Avaya examen   3000.3 examen   3000.3 examen   3000.3 examen   3000.3 examen

NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
A new customer reported an issue on their sire in Milan. The IP telephone can login but cannot make calls
to any agents that are using analog telephones.
Based on the System Monitor traces shown in the exhibit,what is the problem?
A. You need to buy additional licenses
B. All cards may not be seated correctly.
C. 20 packets missed means too many packets lost; IP Office stops the call ptoceeding.
D. Embedded Voicemail is not running properly.
Answer: B

certification Avaya   3000.3   certification 3000.3   3000.3 examen

NO.5 A customer is installing ContactStore 7.8 on a separate Windows server from the VoiceMail Pro Server.
What must be set in the servers so that the recordings move from the voicemail server to the
ContactStore server?
A. The Workgroup name must be in each server.
B. VoiceMail Pro must be part of the domain.
C. IP Office must be in a SCN.
D. The registry key is a string containing the name of the share.
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 3000.3   certification 3000.3   3000.3   3000.3 examen

NO.6 Which two are power option for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class B 24 Volt power supply
B. Class A 24 Volt power supply
C. Power-over-Ethemet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
D. 1151D1 Indiviual Power Supply and the 1151D2 Individual Power Supply with Battery Backup
Answer: C, D

Avaya examen   certification 3000.3   3000.3   3000.3 examen

NO.7 The design for an IP Office has two locations. They will need telephones, voicemail, and meet-me
conferencing ability. They will have a PRI at the main office and the remote office will use the main office
PRI for inbound and outbound calls. The main site has 40 users and one fax machine. The remote site
has 15 users and one fax machine. Which cards and modules are required in the IP Office at the main site
to support all digital telephones?
A. IP500 Preferred edition, three Digital Statin 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module.
B. IP500 Essential edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module.
C. IP500 Essential edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32, Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module.
D. IP500 Preferred edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32 Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module.
Answer: D

Avaya   3000.3 examen   certification 3000.3   certification 3000.3

NO.8 A customer has a help desk call center with 50 agents. Agent time on call are billable to the clients
calling in. which combination of features best meets their needs?
A. VoiceMail Pro, Account codes with CLI, one-X Portal Call Accounting
B. ACD via VM Pro Commpaign Manager and a compaign database
C. ACD to distributed Hunt Groups and one-X Portal Call Accounting
D. ICR with account codes and CDR-enabled for billing.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 3102.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 7004.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 6209
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Center CCT and Multimedia Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

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NO.1 The technician has installed a Contact Center multimedia (CCMM)email and web services to the
Contact Center solution.
What do the customers email and web server connect to?
A. Customer LAN
B. Contact Center Server Subnet
C. Customer server ELAN
D. Contact Center Server ELAN
Answer: A

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NO.2 A technician has been asked to generate outbound and multimedia reports based on data stored
within the Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) database. The technician must also access multimedia
data sources through the Report Creation Wizard for reporting customization. The CCMM server has
been added to the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA).
Which additional step is required to complete this task?
A. Assign the CCMM server as a reporting server for the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
B. Add the Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) server to theCCMA
C. Add the Microsoft Exchange server to the CCMA
D. Assign the CCT server as a reporting server for the CCMS
Answer: A

Avaya examen   6209   6209   certification 6209   6209

NO.3 A technician has installed Communication Control Toolkit (CCT). Which three elements are added to the
event viewer? (Choose three)
A. NCCT Call Log
B. NCCT Security
C. NCCT Audit Log
D. NCCT Error Log
E. NCCT System Log
Answer: B,D,E

Avaya examen   6209 examen   certification 6209   6209 examen   6209 examen

NO.4 A technician is adding an agent in the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) utility. But no
option to add Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) user account details is presented.
What option must be taken to solve this problem?
A. The agent user type must be set to supervisor agent
B. Enter the SIP address of the agent ­ t he vo i ce u ri se r ve r
C. The Create CCT agent
option must be selected
D. The agent first and last name must be populated
Answer: C

Avaya   6209 examen   6209

NO.5 You have installed Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) and need to add the CCT server in the Contact
Center Administration (CCMA) web interface and associate it to a Contact Center Manager Server
(CCMS). After adding the CCT server, you are unable to associate it with the CCMS, what is a problem
with this installation?
A. No CCT users have been created
B. The CCT server does not have valid licenses
C. The CCT server has not been added in CCMA
D. Open Queue has not been enabled on the CCMS
Answer: D

Avaya examen   6209 examen   certification 6209   6209

NO.6 A technician has installed Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) within the Contact Center environment.
Multimedia skillsets must be defined in the Contact Center Administration (CCMA) for multimedia routing
to occur.
What name convention differentiates multimedia skillsets from voice skillsets?
A. Add a multimedia suffix to the skillset name
B. Add a multimedia prefix to the skillset name
C. Add a multimedia disposition code to the skillset name
D. Add multimedia to the skillset name.
Answer: B

Avaya examen   6209   certification 6209   6209

NO.7 An agent with Avaya Aura Agent Desktop cannot log into the Contact Center. The technician needs to
verify network connectivity from the agent PC to the Contact Center Multimedia server.
Which command is used to verify the physical network connection between agent PC to the CCMM
server?
A. Arp
B. Ping
C. Tracert
D. Ipconfig
Answer: B

certification Avaya   certification 6209   6209 examen   6209 examen

NO.8 The technician needs to install an Avaya Aura Contact center in a co-resident configuration to support a
contact center with less than 200 agents or less than 12000 calls per hour. The Contact Center Support
Multimedia Outbound and Universal Networking. The co-resident applications link through Contact Center
Manager Server, License Manager, Contact Center Manager infrastructure, Communication Control
Toolkit, Contact Center Multimedia, Server Utility and Avaya Media Server. For this installation, what is the
drive letter and size of the hard disk partition required for the Avaya Aura Contact Center application?
A. C:\ and 60 GB
B. D:\ and 80 GB
C. E:\ and 120 GB
D. F:\ and 300 GB
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-708-1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Voice Self-Service Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 6402
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3601
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3001
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Configuration and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3302
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Contact Center Control Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3303
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Proactive Contact Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3301
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Centre Maintenance & Troubleshooting Exam )
Questions et réponses: 54 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 3305
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Experience Portal with POM Implementation and Maintenance exam)
Questions et réponses: 64 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 6207
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Recording and Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

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NO.1 You have just installed Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) 2 SP or newer on your Avaya Aura
Experience Portal (AAEP) 6.0. You run your first campaign and the POM monitor appears to shoe an
Active Job, but no outgoing call spears to be made. You notice the following entry in the
CmpMgrService.out log file:
CmpMgrService.out
@2011-10-21-10-24-18|P_POMCM002 | ERROR| POMCM | | | Out call web service returned fault:
user does not have permission to run this Web Service | 192.9.84.93####
Which step must you take to correct the issues and continue with this procedure?
A. Login to Experience Portal Manager (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of "POM Campaign
Manager" and restart the campaign
B. Logging to EPM using a user with an assigned role of "Web Services" and restart theCampaign
C. Login to (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of "Administration" and ensure that the outcall
user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > outbound Settings> voice Server link
has the assigned role of "Web Services"
D. Login to EPM using a user with an assigned role of "Administration" and ensure that the outcall
user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > Outbound Settings > Voice Server
link has assigned the role of "POM Campaign Manager".
Answer: C

Avaya examen   3305 examen   3305   3305   3305

NO.2 Which three are exit reasons in an Intelligent Customer Routing (ICR) CCA Session detail report?
(Choose three)
A. Call completed
B. Call failed
C. Call completed in SSA
D. Call routed
E. Call transferred
Answer: C,D,E

certification Avaya   3305   3305

NO.3 You client reported the multi-server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) local PostgreSQL
database has become corrupted and you have determined you must restore the database from a
backup of the system.
After restoring the database from the backup, which three actions must be performed? (Choose
three)
A. Restart the vpms service on the Experience Portal Manager (EPM).
B. Reconnect each Media Processing Platform (MPP) with the EPM.
C. Restart the MPP service from the EPM.
D. Restart the avpSNMPAgentSvc on the EPM.
E. Install a new license file on the EPM.
Answer: A,B,D

Avaya examen   3305 examen   certification 3305

NO.4 On an existing Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) server, what three are required
when configuring a voice campaign? (Choose three)
A. the IP of the POM server
B. an existing contact strategy
C. the Call Classification Analysis (CCA) timeout to be used
D. an existing contact attribute
E. sufficient voice ports and POM CCA licenses
Answer: B,D,E

Avaya examen   3305   3305 examen   certification 3305   certification 3305

NO.5 You have installed an Orchestration Designer application on a Tomcat application server and
try at call to the application. The test call fails.
What is the best way to validate the application installation?
A. Check the Avaya Aura experience Portal (AAEP) System Monitor.
B. Check AAEP administration System Maintenance > Log Viewer
C. Open a browser window and access the application Http:// <host>: <port>/<application
name>/index.html
D. Look at the Application Detail Report in the AAEP administration.
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 3305   3305   certification 3305

NO.6 After installing a five server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) system you check the port
distribution page only to see the name of the media Processing Platform (MPP) servers in the
system have allocated ports.
Which two are the most probable causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. The AAEP WebLM license has expired; either it was a temporary license or the client's Enterprise
WebLM server is down
B. One or more MPP system resources are overloaded
C. The specified VoIP gatekeeper or SIP gateway is incorrect
D. The Postgres service on the Experience Portal manager (EPM) is not running
Answer: A,C

Avaya   certification 3305   3305 examen   3305

NO.7 What is the last step that is required after successful installation of intelligent Customer
Routing (ICR) Core?
A. Restart the terracotta service.
B. Restart the ICR Core service.
C. Restart the httpd service.
D. Reboot the machine.
Answer: D

Avaya examen   certification 3305   3305 examen   3305   certification 3305

NO.8 The Alarm Manager page on Experience Portal Manager shows an Alarm:
Q_ICR62006: User-to-User header is missing from SIP response 183 Session Which Avaya product in
the deployment is not configured correctly?
A. Avaya Aura Communication Manager
B. Avaya Aura Session Manager
C. Intelligent Customer Routing
D. Avaya Aura Experience Portal
Answer: A

Avaya   3305   3305   3305 examen

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-916
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Specialist - IP Office Implement and Support Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 135 Q&As

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NO.1 .What is necessary to upgrade the firmware for the 4600/5600 series sets on an IP Office system?
A. Manager
B. Serial cable
C. Third-party FTP server
D. Null modem cable
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916   132-S-916   132-S-916 examen

NO.2 When installing IP Hardphones, the engineer wants to use the IEEE 802.3af standard to _
____.
A. Supply AC voltage to the IP Office
B. Supply power to the IPHardphones
C. Perform Layer 3 routing for IPHardphones
D. Filter multicast traffic to the appropriate IPHardphone
Answer: B

certification Avaya   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916   certification 132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.3 .A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a
menu in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN.
Where in the setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A. On the General tab in the menu action
B. On the General tab for each transfer action
C. On the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D. In the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.4 .A customer using an IP Office system with a single PRI line is reporting difficulties when dialing
out. What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two.)
A. There are not sufficient channels available for the number of callers on the system.
B. The PRI clock quality is set to Network instead of Fallback.
C. The PRI clock quality is set to Fallback instead of Network.
D. The internal CSU is enabled.
Answer: A,C

certification Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what would the default gateway for IP Office 1 be?
A. 10.10.1.1
B. 10.10.1.2
C. 192.168.10.100
D. 135.122.34.90
Answer: D

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-916   certification 132-S-916

NO.6 .A customer reports that IP Office users cannot access voicemail at certain times. Avaya has
requested that the customer reproduce the issue and provide traces. Which three steps can the
customer take to reproduce the reported issue? (Choose three.)
A. The customer can place test calls into voicemail.
B. The customer can use the 'IP Office System Monitor" andVoiceMail Pro debug logs to record
system activity.
C. The customer can use System Monitor to "Call Sync" on all calls in the system.
D. The customer can reboot the IP Office to see if it resolves the issue.
E. The customer can record the date and time of the reported issue.
Answer: A,B,E

Avaya examen   132-S-916 examen   certification 132-S-916

NO.7 Recordings take up how much space on a hard drive?
A. 2MB per minute
B. 200KB per minute
C. 1MB per minute
D. 650KB per minute
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.8 .Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options are available in the IP Office?
A. Disabled, Enabled
B. Server, Enabled, Client
C. Server, Disabled, Client,DialIn
D. Server, Client, Disabled
Answer: C

Avaya examen   132-S-916 examen   certification 132-S-916   certification 132-S-916

NO.9 .Which file validates the version of software that is to be loaded into the 4600 Series Telephone
set?
A. bbla0_83.scr
B. 46xxsettings.txt
C. 46xxsettings.scr
D. 46xxupgrade.scr
Answer: D

certification Avaya   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.10 A customer wants a quick way of putting callers through to the mailbox for hunt group 245
SalesAdmin. They want to be able to put the caller on hold and just dial 123. Which Short Code
should be used to accomplish this?
A. Telephone Number "SalesAdmin"
Feature VoiceMailCollect
B. Telephone Number "#SalesAdmin"
Feature VoiceMailCollect
C. Telephone Number 245
Feature VoiceMailCollect
D. Telephone Number "SalesAdmin"
Feature VoiceMailDrop
Answer: B

certification Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916   certification 132-S-916

NO.11 .An IP Office application will allow an individual to select protocols and interfaces that are to be
traced and decoded. The trace can either be captured directly to screen or as a log file for later
analysis. Traces from different protocols can be color coded to improve the clarity of large log files.
Which application is used for this?
A. Debug View
B. System Monitor
C. Delta Server
D. System Status Application
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916   certification 132-S-916

NO.12 .Which three pieces of information does System Status Application provide? (Choose three.)
A. Configuration errors
B. Local IP Office license status
C. Trunk status
D. Extension status
E. Remote IP Office licensestatu
Answer: B,C,D

Avaya   132-S-916   certification 132-S-916

NO.13 .An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls. What are three
possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya   132-S-916 examen   certification 132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.14 Which three options does the IMS user have available in Microsoft?Outlook? (Choose three.)
A. Select IMS server.
B. Select Voicemail Box.
C. Select Voicemail server.
D. Select handset for VM playback.
E. Prompt before connecting to server.
Answer: B,D,E

Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916 examen

NO.15 .Your customer has an IP Office 412 system running version 4.2 where calls at times ring to wrong
extension numbers. Which three steps would you take to reproduce or validate the issue?
(Choose three.)
A. Use System Status Application to watch the call progress to verify which extension the call is
ringing to and why.
B. Use System Monitor and the Call / Packet information to follow the call progress to identify the
issue.
C. Use the telephone's display for the extension that is incorrectly ringing to determine how the
call was routed.
D. Use the Call Status application to watch the call progress to verify how the call is being routed
and to what extension it is being directed to.
E. Use the IP Office Manager application to verify that theVoiceMail call flow is configured
correctly.
Answer: A,B,C

Avaya examen   132-S-916   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916

NO.16 .An IP Office solution is sold to a customer who needs to connect two existing sites over their LAN.
Which two are required by Avaya to ensure the VoIP connection and calls work properly? (Choose
two.)
A. Firewall / filter
B. Network assessment
C. A separate voice network
D. Static addresses for the IP Office
Answer: B,D

Avaya examen   132-S-916   certification 132-S-916

NO.17 .When using SIP or H.323 trunks and the System Status Application, which three problems can be
tested using the System Status Application? (Choose three.)
A. Round trip delay
B. Receive jitter
C. Receive packet loss
D. Quality of Service (QoS) value
E. DSCPQoS value
Answer: A,B,C

Avaya   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916 examen

NO.18 .When configuring Session Initiated Protocol (SIP) trunks with SIP authorization using an IP
address on an IP Office system which option must be set in the SIP Line configuration form for the
trunks to function correctly?
A. The customer's NAT IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
B. The Primary Authentication Name must be set.
C. The compression mode must be set to automatic.
D. The ITSP IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916 examen   132-S-916   132-S-916

NO.19 .You have an Avaya IP 412 Office with the largest supported voice compression modules (VCMs)
on the system. What is the maximum number of data channels supported on this system?
A. 20
B. 50
C. 80
D. 100
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 132-S-916   132-S-916 examen

NO.20 .Which two operating systems are supported by VoiceMail Pro? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows 2000
B. Microsoft Windows XP
C. Microsoft Windows 98 SE
D. Microsoft Windows NT
Answer: A,B

Avaya   132-S-916   132-S-916   certification 132-S-916

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Dernières Avaya 6202.1 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 6202.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Contact Center Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Which pre-installation preparations must be completed on a Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server
before installing Avaya Aura Contact Center server applications?
A. Enable IPV6 . Ensure SNMP is disabled. Enable NetBIOS. The ELAN card must be first in the binding
order
B. Enable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Enable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card
must the first in the binding order
C. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Disable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card
must be first in the binding order
D. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled .Disable NetBIOS .The ELAN card must be first in the binding
order
Answer: C

Avaya   6202.1   6202.1 examen   6202.1

NO.2 In an Avaya Aura Contact Center, what does enabling Open do?
A. It permits agents to utilize the Avaya OpenQueue Desktop for agent skills that have agents logged in
with the correct training and knowledge sets to handle calls
B. It allows third parties including Contact Center MultiMedia (CCMM) to create, read, and delete
multimedia and voice contacts in Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
C. It gives agents and Call Center supervisors the ability to manage multiple simultaneous contact types
such as voice, outbound voice, email, chat, IM and voicemail
D. It provides extended call queuring functionality for the Avaya Aura Contact Center by implementing
the same functionality as the Automatic Call Distribution Queue including useful features like visualization
Answer: B

Avaya   6202.1   6202.1 examen   6202.1

NO.3 In a SIP based Avaya Aura Contact Center, the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) supports
secure Transport Layer Security (TLS) communication When implementing Security Certificate
management for TLS in the CCMS, what is the first step that must be accomplished?
A. Create the Certificate Store in the CCMS
B. Apply the Signed Certificate to the CCMS
C. Create a Certificate Signing Request (CSR) file from the CMS
D. Apply the Certificate Authority (CA) Root Certificate to the CCMS
Answer: D

Avaya   6202.1   6202.1 examen   certification 6202.1   6202.1

NO.4 You have completed the stand-alone installation of Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)
software on a fully prepared Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server The CCMA cannot establish a
connection to the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) What is one of the first steps to troubleshoot
the problem.?
A. Reinstall CCMA
B. Ensure that the correct sys-admin password is being used
C. Change the IP multicast sending address on the CCMS server
D. Ensure that the CCMS and CCMA servers have been added to a domain
Answer: B

Avaya examen   6202.1 examen   6202.1

NO.5 After completing the in installation of the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS), you want to display
the installation log. What is the path to this log?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\PV|
B. C:\Logs\CCMS
C. C:\Avaya\Logs\Sysops
D. D:\Log\CMS
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 6202.1   6202.1   6202.1 examen

NO.6 Which operating system features should be enabled in Windows Server 2008 operating system before
you install Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)?
A. Windows Server Backup for running CCMA Server Backups and Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. TFTP Client to Backup of the CCMA configuration files to remote TFTP Server and XPS Viewer to view
reports on the server
C. Storage Manager for SAN s for managing the remote backups and IIS
D. IIS and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
Answer: A

Avaya   6202.1   6202.1   6202.1 examen

NO.7 You are installing Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on a standalone server. Which
statement regarding passwords associated with CCMA running on a Windows Server 2008 operating
system is true?
A. The iceAdmin user account can be deleted during the CCMA installation
B. The iceAdmin user account password must be established during installation of CCMA
C. If the iceAdmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as webadmin of any other
user
D. If the default webadmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as iceAdmin or as
any other user
Answer: B

certification Avaya   6202.1   6202.1 examen   6202.1 examen   6202.1   6202.1

NO.8 A company is planning to implement a stand-alone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) license
with 50 Voice Agents Which license type should the company purchase?
A. Essential
B. Nodal NCC
C. Nodal Enterprise
D. Corporate Enterprise
Answer: A

Avaya examen   6202.1 examen   6202.1   6202.1   6202.1

NO.9 You are installing a standalone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) The Application will be
installed on a Windows Server 2008 operating system. As a part of the Windows Server 2008 operating
system preparation the IPv6 option needs to be removed What is one way to disable IPv6 functionality?
A. IPv6 is disabled by default on Windows Server 2008 operating system
B. Perform a NET USE IPV6 DISABLE within a command window
C. Under Control Panel, go to System and Security and remove IPv6 addressing
D. Right chick on the Local Area Connection Adaptor and select Properties, then clear the IPv6 check box
Answer: D

Avaya   6202.1   certification 6202.1   6202.1 examen

NO.10 You are preparing a Windows 2008 Server for Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) and Server
Utility installation Which operation on the server can the Server Utility perform?
A. Perform event preferences
B. Perform database restores
C. Administer Contact Center Agent login credentials
D. Modify Real-Time Display interface parameters
Answer: A

Avaya   6202.1   6202.1

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Code d'Examen: 3000.3
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Small and Medium Enterprise (SME) Communications Solutions Exam)
Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has a help desk call center with 50 agents. Agent time on call are billable to the clients
calling in. which combination of features best meets their needs?
A. VoiceMail Pro, Account codes with CLI, one-X Portal Call Accounting
B. ACD via VM Pro Commpaign Manager and a compaign database
C. ACD to distributed Hunt Groups and one-X Portal Call Accounting
D. ICR with account codes and CDR-enabled for billing.
Answer: D

certification Avaya   3000.3   3000.3   3000.3

NO.2 Which item must be completed for an IP Office user to be counted in CCR as an agent?
A. User must be defined as an agent in one-X Portal.
B. force Account Code must be checked on the user s Supervisor tab.
C. CCR Agent Must be checked on the user s Supervisor tab.
D. User must be a member of a hunt group.
Answer: C

Avaya   3000.3 examen   3000.3   3000.3   3000.3

NO.3 The design for an IP Office has two locations. They will need telephones, voicemail, and meet-me
conferencing ability. They will have a PRI at the main office and the remote office will use the main office
PRI for inbound and outbound calls. The main site has 40 users and one fax machine. The remote site
has 15 users and one fax machine. Which cards and modules are required in the IP Office at the main site
to support all digital telephones?
A. IP500 Preferred edition, three Digital Statin 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module.
B. IP500 Essential edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module.
C. IP500 Essential edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32, Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module.
D. IP500 Preferred edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32 Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module.
Answer: D

Avaya examen   certification 3000.3   3000.3 examen   3000.3   certification 3000.3   certification 3000.3

NO.4 What should the telephone number field N in an ARS short code look like if you want to send out caller
ID for the number 3033211234 on an ISDN/PRI line?
A. NCLI3033211234
B. Nss3033211234
C. Ns3033211234
D. NCID3033211234
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 3000.3   3000.3 examen   3000.3

NO.5 Which two are power option for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class B 24 Volt power supply
B. Class A 24 Volt power supply
C. Power-over-Ethemet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
D. 1151D1 Indiviual Power Supply and the 1151D2 Individual Power Supply with Battery Backup
Answer: C, D

certification Avaya   3000.3   3000.3   certification 3000.3   certification 3000.3   certification 3000.3

NO.6 A customer is installing ContactStore 7.8 on a separate Windows server from the VoiceMail Pro Server.
What must be set in the servers so that the recordings move from the voicemail server to the
ContactStore server?
A. The Workgroup name must be in each server.
B. VoiceMail Pro must be part of the domain.
C. IP Office must be in a SCN.
D. The registry key is a string containing the name of the share.
Answer: D

Avaya examen   3000.3   certification 3000.3   3000.3 examen

NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
A new customer reported an issue on their sire in Milan. The IP telephone can login but cannot make calls
to any agents that are using analog telephones.
Based on the System Monitor traces shown in the exhibit,what is the problem?
A. You need to buy additional licenses
B. All cards may not be seated correctly.
C. 20 packets missed means too many packets lost; IP Office stops the call ptoceeding.
D. Embedded Voicemail is not running properly.
Answer: B

certification Avaya   certification 3000.3   3000.3

NO.8 Secure Digital (SD) card commands can be invoked from which two sources? (Choose two.)
A. one-X Portal
B. IP Office Manager
C. Avaya telephones
D. VoiceMail Pro Clint
E. one-X Portal for IP Office
Answer: B, C

Avaya   3000.3   3000.3

NO.9 Aplication can be used in Conjunction with one-X Portal to provide full softphone and call handing
capability for us
A. Office Voice Portal
B. Office Video Softphone
C. Office Phone Manager Pro
D. Office Softconsole
Answer: B

Avaya examen   3000.3   3000.3 examen   certification 3000.3

NO.10 An IP Office with Embedded Voicemail (EVM) has the time set using the system telephone. Each time
the IP Office reboots the time changes to the wrong time. Which Windows command can be used to
determine if there is a time server on the network causing the change.?
A. time
B. time server
C. net time
D. get time
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 3000.3   3000.3   3000.3   3000.3 examen   3000.3 examen

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Code d'Examen: 7004.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s D I D r ange t o t he A tt endan t.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

Avaya   7004.1 examen   7004.1   7004.1

NO.2 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

Avaya   7004.1 examen   7004.1   7004.1 examen

NO.3 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

Avaya examen   7004.1 examen   7004.1 examen

NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s p r og r a mm ed da t abase sho w n i n t he exh i b it and AC 1 = 9 , ove r w h i ch R L I w ill a ca ll
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

Avaya   7004.1   7004.1

NO.5 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

certification Avaya   certification 7004.1   7004.1   7004.1   certification 7004.1

NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

certification Avaya   certification 7004.1   certification 7004.1   7004.1 examen

NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s d i a li ng p l an sho w n i n t he exh i b it and an exa m p l e f o r it s r equ ir e m en t s :
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

Avaya   7004.1   7004.1   7004.1

NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

Avaya examen   7004.1   certification 7004.1   certification 7004.1

NO.9 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

Avaya   7004.1 examen   7004.1   7004.1   7004.1   certification 7004.1

NO.10 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

Avaya examen   7004.1   certification 7004.1   7004.1 examen

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Code d'Examen: 3600
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 Which VLAN/VLANS should be included on the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) for a proper functioning split
Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT) configuration?
A. only VLAN 101
B. only VLAN 1 and the 1ST
C. only the VLANs that are also included on the SMLT/SLT uplinks
D. the 1ST VWN and all the vWNs that are included on all SMLT/SLT links
Answer: D

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NO.2 When configuring an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 redundant Installation for warm standby,
which protocol is used to give the fastest recalculation of large layer 3 topology by the standby CPU, after
a Master CPU failure?
A. STP
B. Rip
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Answer: C

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NO.3 When multiple VLANs are used, Dynamic Host Control protocol (DHCP) relay is required to get the
DHCP information from the end user VLAN to the DHCP server.
Which statement about how to enable DHCP relay for a VLAN is true?
A. The physical VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
B. The IP address of the DHCP relay agent is used.
C. The IP address of the core server VLAN is used
D. The virtual VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A technician is adding the Virtual link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) configuration to a
Converged Campus Solution where all Ethernet Routing Switches (ERSs) are directly connected without
intermediary WAN transport devices.
What are two recommended configuration tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Configure all links to use the same timeout value.
B. For the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) links, configure the long time-out value.
C. For the SMLT links, configure the long timeout value.
D. Configure all links to use a global reserved multicast MAC address for VLACP messages.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 What is a characteristic of Routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) configuration?
A. RSMLT is only configured on edge SMLT connections.
B. RSMLT uses priority values to distinguish between the primary and backup routers
C. RSMLT routers are implemented with Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF)-Lite routers
D. RSMLT is always used in conjunction with routing protocols and SMLT connections.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Traceout allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 CLI
command. In the command output, the possible range of w
values is 1-255.
The w
value represents wait time for what?
A. Start of command execution
B. Time to live
C. Per probe
D. Completion of traceout report
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which protocol can be used for end-to-end detection in a network as well as for point-to-point
detection?
A. LACP
B. VLACP
C. RSTP
D. MSTP
Answer: B

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NO.8 Fn Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 configurations, which service class ensures that protocol
updates such as RIP and OSPF are able to get out of a heavily congested switch?
A. Bronze
B. Standard
C. Network Control
D. Premium Control
Answer: C

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NO.9 When incorporating Split Multi-Link Trunk (SMLT) on a pair of Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600
switches traffic from the edge of the network is directed to either ERS 8600. The ping-snoop feature
assists in determining which path the traffic is taking.
How does the ping-snoop operation work?
Determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work?
A. Ping-snoop looks at the IP header and directs traffic to designated link.
B. Ping-snoop looks at the MAC header and directs traffic to the designated link
C. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the IP flow specified in the ping-snoop command.
D. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the MAC header (source and destination) specified in the
ping-snoop command.
Answer: C

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NO.10 The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 supports the feature IP VPN-Lite that does not require the use
of an MPLS network.
Which function does the ERS 8600 as a Provider Edge (PE) perform for IP VPN-Lite.?
A. The PE uses the Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF) instances to provide traffic separation
B. The PE provides route exchange with remote PE devices using OSPF.
C. The PE encapsulates the IP packets into the separate VPN-Lite VLANs for traffic separation
D. The PE incorporates Label Distribution Protocol across the core network to connect remote PE
devices.
Answer: A

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NO.11 When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 using the default interface, the attempt
to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI.
How is the ACLI interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter 'no' at the default interface prompt.
Answer: C

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NO.12 An Information Technology organization needs to determine whether they should upgrade their
existing Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches to release 5.0. Each chassis currently has both 8648GTR
8648TX modules. One of the features that the company requires is the ability to perform port mirroring on
multiple ports per module at a time.
What should be done to meet their port mirroring requirement when upgrading to software release 5.0?
A. Replace the existing modules with 8648GTRS modules,
B. Upgrade to ERS 8600 Release 5.0 without any hardware upgrade.
C. Replace the existing 8648TX modules with ERS 8648TXE for egress mirroring.
D. Recommend other means to capturing traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.13 To confirm that routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) will work on a set of VLANs, which network
design aspect should be considered?
A. RSMLT is enabled on each SMLT VLAN on which the function is required.
B. RSMLT is enabled on the VLAN group
C. Router 1 always owns the network
D. RSMLT is enabled on all SMLT VLANs
Answer: A

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NO.14 A technician discovers that an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 cat5e copper link is intermittent.
The link connects a distant workstation to 8348GTX port 6/2. The cable path is undetermined at this point
and it is suspected to traverse many patch panels.
How can the ERS 8300 Time Domain reflectometer tool be of help in this situation?
A. The Virtual Circuit Test command config ethernet 6/2 vct test can detect opens, shorts, bad
terminations.
B. The virtual circuit Repair command config ethernet 6/2 vct repair can detect the bad cable pairs and
repair the cable by moving data to the good cable pairs.
C. The Virtual Circuit Echo command config ethernet 6/2 vct echo can detect the bad cable pairs only
when connected to another ERS 8300.
D. The Virtual Circuit Detect command config ethernet 6/2 vct detect can detect how many patch panels
are used between the device and switch and provide a percentage of dropped packets.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which feature can be used on a Split Multi Link Trunking (SMLT) with a Sod Down option?
A. Extended control packet limit (ext-CP)
B. Discard untagged frames
C. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol (SLPP)
D. Virtual Link Aggregation Protocol (VLACP)
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which set of procedures will upgrade the boot monitor on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 with
a single 8692SF module?
A. Copy the new image to flash.
Activate the new image with SF module in service.
B. Copy the new image to flash.
Boot the new image.
C. Modify the boot choice for run-time image.
Boot the new image.
D. Copy the new image to flash.
Modify the boot choice for run-time image.
Boot the new image.
Answer: B

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NO.17 The trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is Enterprise Policy Manager (EPM) used for in an Enterprise network?
A. to manage traffic prioritization and network access security for business applications
B. as an alternative to EA servers
C. to distribute control of packet classification for resiliency and efficiency
D. to assign user role attributes on the RADIUS server
Answer: A

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NO.19 One of the benefits of the Ethernet Routing switch (ERS) 8300 switch is its ability to provide
power-over-Ethernet (PoE). When implementing PoE on the ERS 8300 there are certain power supply
requirements to consider. The 8301AC produces 1140W and 1770W and the 8302AC produces 850W
and 1400W depending on the input voltage for both cases.
If there are eight 8648TX-PWR modules in a chassis, each needing 200W for Powered Devices (PI))
which power supply configuration is recommended?
A. One 8301AC power supply with 240VAC input voltage
B. Two 8302AC power supplies with 120VAC input voltage
C. Three 83CAC power supplies with 240VAC input voltage
D. Two 8301AC and one 8302Ac for redundancy with 240VAC input voltage
Answer: C

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NO.20 A technician is configuring 802.1Q tagging Virtual Link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) with
timeout and untagged frames to be discarded.
Which part of the network is being configured?
A. 1ST
B. the out-of-band management port
C. the edge access ports
D. the uplinks
Answer: D

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