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Code d'Examen: ICBRR
Nom d'Examen: GARP (International Certificate in Banking Risk and Regulation (ICBRR))
Questions et réponses: 342 Q&As

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NO.1 How could a bank's hedging activities with futures contracts expose it to liquidity risk?
A. The futures hedge may not work due to the widening of basis which could result in a loss for the
bank.
B. Prices may move such that a loss results on the hedge.
C. Since futures require margins which are settled every day, the bank could find itself scrambling for
funds.
D. The bank could get exposed to liquidity risk since futures trade on an exchange.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A financial analyst is trying to distinguish credit risk from market risk. A $100 loan
collateralized with $200 in stock has limited ___, but an uncollateralized obligation issued by a large
bank to pay an amount linked to the long-term performance of the Nikkei 225 Index that measures
the performance of the leading Japanese stocks on the Tokyo Stock Exchange likely has more ___
than ___.
A. Legal risk; market risk; credit risk
B. Market risk; market risk; credit risk
C. Market risk; credit risk; market risk
D. Credit risk, legal risk; market risk
Answer: B

GARP   certification ICBRR   ICBRR examen   ICBRR examen

NO.3 What is generally true of the relationship between a bond's yield and it's time to maturity when
the yield curve is upward sloping?
A. The longer the time to maturity of the bond, the lower its yield.
B. The longer the time to maturity of the bond, the higher its yield.
C. The shorter the time to maturity of the bond, the higher its yield.
D. There is no relationship between the two
Answer: B

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NO.4 To estimate the responsiveness of a particular equity portfolio to the overall market, a trader
should use the portfolio's
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. CVaR
D. VaR
Answer: B

certification GARP   certification ICBRR   ICBRR examen

NO.5 Which one of the following four variables of the Black-Scholes model is typically NOT known at
a point in time?
A. The underlying relevant exchange rates
B. The underlying interest rates
C. The future volatility of the exchange rates
D. The time to maturity
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which one of the following statements regarding collateralized mortgage obligations (CMO) is
incorrect?
A. CMOs have senior tranches which are considered short-term, low-risk instruments by banks
B. CMOs are asset-backed securities that have pools of collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) as
underlying collateral.
C. CMOs are generally less risky investment than CDOs.
D. CMOs are pools of mortgages that are divided according to the timing of cash flows.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which one of the following changes would typically increase the price of a fixed income
instrument, such as a bond?
A. Decrease in inflation rates in a country.
B. Increase in time to maturity.
C. Increase in risk premium.
D. Increase in demand for goods and services.
Answer: A

GARP   certification ICBRR   ICBRR   certification ICBRR   ICBRR examen

NO.8 A credit risk analyst is evaluating factors that quantify credit risk exposures. The risk that the
borrower would fail to make full and timely repayments of its financial obligations over a given time
horizon typically refers to:
A. Duration of default.
B. Exposure at default.
C. Loss given default.
D. Probability of default.
Answer: D

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GED GED-Science GED-Social-Studies GED-Writing examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: GED-Science
Nom d'Examen: GED (GED Science Exam)
Questions et réponses: 300 Q&As

Code d'Examen: GED-Social-Studies
Nom d'Examen: GED (GED Social Studies Exam)
Questions et réponses: 300 Q&As

Code d'Examen: GED-Writing
Nom d'Examen: GED (GED Language Arts - Writing (Essay Writing Exam))
Questions et réponses: 300 Q&As

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NO.1 Why is algin used in a chocolate milk shake?
A. provides a dark chocolate color
B. makes the milk shake thick and creamy
C. enhances the chocolate flavor
D. makes the milk shake cold
E. forces the milk shake to melt
Answer: B

GED   GED-Science   GED-Science

NO.2 A scientist uses a laboratory mouse to complete an experiment involving a maze. During each
trial, the mouse runs through the maze, and the scientist counts the number of errors that the mouse
makes before it reaches the end of the maze. The mouse goes through the maze a total of six times.
The scientist's data are shown in the table at the left.
Based on the information and graph, which statement is the best interpretation?
A. The mouse made more errors after completing several runs through the maze.
B. The mouse made the same number of errors during each run through the maze.
C. The mouse reduced the number of errors made during the six runs through the maze.
D. The number of errors that the mouse made decreased an equal amount during each subsequent
run through the maze.
E. The number of errors that the mouse made varied erratically during the six runs through the maze.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A cell, the basic unit of living things, contains microscopic structures called organelles. A group
of specialized cells of the same type forms a tissue, such as muscle or nerve tissue. An organ such as
the liver is composed of different kinds of tissues that contribute to its overall function. A group of
related organs form an organ system, such as the digestive system. A living organism may contain a
number of organ systems working together to carry on the life functions.
Based on the information, in which category does the human heart belong?
A. cell
B. tissue
C. organ
D. organ system
E. organelle
Answer: C

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NO.4 Based on the information, where would one find wispy, feathery clouds?
A. at Earth's surface
B. high in the atmosphere
C. below an altitude of 2000 meters
D. low in the atmosphere
E. close to Earth as well as high in the atmosphere
Answer: B

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NO.5 A newly hatched chicken will peck at any spots on the ground that are a color different from
the ground. This behavior is instinctive and only about 15 percent of the pecks lead to food. However,
with time, the chick's accuracy in using pecks to pick up food improves.
To what can we attribute this more accurate feeding behavior?
A. The mother hen instructed the young chick.
B. Information was obtained from other chicks.
C. Trial and error on the part of the chick improved feeding success.
D. More food was made available to the chick.
E. The chick competed with other chicks.
Answer: C

GED examen   GED-Science examen   GED-Science   GED-Science examen

NO.6 The pH of a liquid is a measure of its acidity or its alkalinity. Even small changes in pH of human
blood can cause very serious health problems.
Carbon dioxide (CO2), is one of the dissolved gases present in healthy blood. CO2 normally mixes
with the water in blood to form a mild acid, carbonic acid, which lowers the blood pH.If a health
problem causes the dissolved carbon dioxide to increase or decrease, the blood's pH would change
and could produce an unhealthy pH level.
Based on this information, which statement best summarizes the blood condition that might result
when an individual has a respiratory condition that causes the blood to contain too much CO2?
A. The blood pH will remain the same.
B. The blood pH will be lowered.
C. The blood will be less acidic.
D. The blood's white cell count will be greatly decreased.
E. The blood will clot more quickly.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The greenhouse effect explains why a car's interior can get hot on a sunny day even if it is cool
outside. The glass windows allow the Sun's rays to pass through to the interior but
prevent heat rays from escaping to the outside. Certain gases, such as carbon dioxide and nitrous
oxide, act like the glass in a greenhouse when they are present in the atmosphere.
Both natural and human activities lead to the release of gases that contribute to the greenhouse
effect. During recent summers, forest fires have contributed to the loss of millions of acres of forest.
These fires have resulted in the release of smoke and ash as well as greenhouse gases.
Based on the information, which statement most likely predicts the result of ongoing widespread
forest fires?
A. Forest fires are unlikely to affect atmospheric temperature.
B. Forest fires decrease the amount of atmospheric greenhouse gases.
C. Greenhouse gases could help form new animal species.
D. There could be a gradual increase in average atmospheric temperatures.
E. There could be a gradual decrease in average atmospheric temperatures.
Answer: D

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NO.8 The following symbols represent a shortcut for representing an element. For example, O
stands for oxygen, H for hydrogen, and C for carbon. H2O is the formula for water. The subscript 2 in
the formula indicates that there are two atoms of hydrogen in a water molecule. If there is no
subscript after a symbol, the subscript is assumed to be one. Therefore, one molecule of water
contains three atoms: two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.
Based on the information, how many atoms are represented in C12H22O11?
A. 3
B. 11
C. 12
D. 22
E. 45
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: BPM-001
Nom d'Examen: GAQM (Business Process Manager (BPM))
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 ______________helps organizations leverage processes to achieve their goals and be
successful.
A. Pert Chart
B. Statement of work (SOW)
C. Flow chart
D. Business process management
Answer: D

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NO.2 Collect Data stage is all about getting the information you need to make the argument for a
new process. This information can be acquired through a variety of methods, such as: (Choose two)
A. Focus groups
B. Group meetings
C. Interviews
D. Blogs
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 The diamond symbol in flowchart process mapping means
A. A decision is to be made
B. Another step in the process
C. Indicates direction
D. Indicates the start of the process
Answer: A

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NO.4 ______________ are designed to control, define, standardize, and structure how procedures
are carried out within an organization.
A. Business rules
B. Business analysis
C. Business ethics
D. Business strategy
Answer: A

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NO.5 Pam is gathering information to design a process. She will consider which of the following
concepts?
A. Mind mapping
B. Role of content
C. Brainstorming
D. RAP model
Answer: B

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NO.6 The Six Sigma approach focuses on? (Choose two.)
A. Measurable, quantifiable, stable results
B. Reducing variation in processes and products
C. Bring transparency in business ethics
D. Waste reduction in production system
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 When examining the role of content in your process, you need to determine if your process is
________________
A. complex
B. process oriented
C. document-driven
D. volume-driven
Answer: C

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NO.8 Six Sigma strives to have a process operate at 99% efficiency.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Le plus récent matériel de formation IIA IIA-CIA-Part4

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part4
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 4, Business Management Skills)
Questions et réponses: 535 Q&As

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NO.1 A small engineering consulting firm accepts special projects from customers in a variety of
fields. Its choice of an organic organizational design was most likely based on its:
A. Lack of concern for self-fulfillment of employees.
B. Preference for formal communication.
C. Adoption of directive leadership style.
D. Participative decision making processes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The organic structure is best suited to a company that emphasizes operational efficiency less than
the flexibility needed to respond quickly to changes in its environment and the creativity to find
solutions to new problems. Decision making in this context tends to rely on input from many
sources and requires multidirectional communication. Hence, a horizontal or flat structure typified
by project or matrix management will be appropriate.

NO.2 The competitive factor that may lead to industry overcapacity is
A. A favorable interest rate charged by suppliers of capital.
B. A short lead time for capacity expansion.
C. The existence of first mover advantages.
D. Integration of competitors.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
First mover advantages may be significant. Thus, short lead times for ordering equipment, lower
costs, and the ability to exploit an excess of demand over supply may encourage too many firms to
expand.

NO.3 Many factors cause firms to overbuild, resulting in industry overcapacity. The structural
factor that may lead to overbuilding is:
A. A reduction in supplier prices.
B. A shallow learning curve.
C. An absence of exit barriers.
D. The presence of a strong market leader.
Answer: A

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part4 examen   IIA-CIA-Part4 examen
Explanation:
Suppliers of capital, equipment, materials, etc., face their own competitive pressures. Thus, lower
supplier prices, government subsidies, favorable interest rates, and similar incentives may promote
expansion by customer industries.

NO.4 Some studies show that managers spend 60 to 70% of their time communicating and that
nearly 60% of that time is spent listening. Listening effectiveness is best increased by:
A. Resisting both internal and external distractions.
B. Waiting to review key concepts until the speaker is through talking.
C. Tuning out messages that do not seem to fit the meeting purpose.
D. Factoring in biases to evaluate the information being given.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Concentrating on what the speaker is saying is critical to effective listening. This result is best
achieved by resisting internal and external distractions. Physical distractions such as noise, a
tendency to be overly aware of the speaker's physical and other differences from the listener,
focusing on interesting details at the expense of major points, or emotional reactions to a statement
with which the listener disagrees should be avoided.

NO.5 Which of the following factors is least typical of an industry that faces intense competitive
rivalry?
A. Price-cutting.
B. Large advertising budgets.
C. Frequent introduction of new products.
D. A high threat of substitutes.
Answer: D

IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part4   certification IIA-CIA-Part4
Explanation:
A high threat of substitutes reduces the attractiveness of an industry. It tends to increase the price
elasticity of demand and therefore limits price increases and profit margins. If other factors are
constant, fewer entrants result in less intense competition.

NO.6 For a multinational firm, which of the following is a disadvantage of an ethnocentric staffing
policy in which all key management positions are filled by parent-company nationals?
A. An ethnocentric staffing policy significantly raises compensation, training, and staffing costs.
B. An ethnocentric staffing policy produces resentment among the firm's employees in host
countries.
C. An ethnocentric staffing policy limits career mobility for parent-country nationals.
D. An ethnocentric staffing policy isolates headquarters from foreign subsidiaries.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
An ethnocentric staffing policy has the advantage that expatriates may understand the objectives,
policies, and procedures of the parent firm better than local employees do.
However, ethnocentrism in hiring has the following disadvantages, among others:
(1) Expatriate managers have difficulty in adapting to a new culture, language, and physical
environment;
(2)training and relocation costs may be high;
(3)host-country governments prefer local control;
(4)the morale and performance of host-country employees will suffer.

NO.7 The General Electric (GE) portfolio model for competitive analysis of strategic business units
(SBUs) should be compared with the Boston Consulting Croup's growth-share matrix. The GE model:
A. Is a matrix with two variables:relative market share and market growth rate.
B. Calculates an index for each of its two variables.
C. Considers such factors for business strength as market size, growth rate, and price levels.
D. Considers such factors for market attractiveness as market share, growth rate, and marketing
skills.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The GE model is a multifactor portfolio matrix with two variables. Business strength or competitive
position (BUS) is on one axis, and market attractiveness (MAT) is on the other. BUS is classified as
strong, medium, or weak, and MAT is classified as high, medium, or low. Thus, the matrix in this
model is 3 x 3 and has nine cells. SBUs are shown in the matrix as circles. Circle size is directly
proportional to the size of the related market, with a shaded portion in the circle that represents
the SBU's market share. To measure BUS and MAT, the firm must isolate the multiple factors
affecting each, quantify them, and create an index. Factors will vary with each business. The
measurements will provide the values on the axes of the matrix.

NO.8 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
synergy arises from selling a line of carsthat share some components or abrand identification.

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NO.1 Consider the following code sample which creates an ApplicationContext from a file called
"application-config.xml" in the "rewards.internal" package, and a file called test-infra-config.xml in
the current folder:
ApplicationContext context = new
FileSystemXmlApplicationContext("classpath:rewards.internal.application-config.xml",
"file:testinfra-config.xml");
Which of those statements is true? (select one)
A. The use of the "file" prefix is not necessary
B. The use of the "classpath" prefix is not necessary
C. The use of the "." separator is correct
D. Both a and b
Answer: A

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NO.2 Consider the following complete configuration sample:
<bean class="rewards.internal.RewardNetworkImpl">
<property name="accountRepository" ref="accountRepository"/>
</bean>
<bean class="rewards.internal.account.JdbcAccountRepository"/>
Which of the following statements is true? (Select one)
A. This configuration is correct
B. This configuration is not valid because the first bean should have an id. Its value should be
"rewardNetwork".
C. This configuration is not valid because the second bean should have an id. Its value should be
"accountRepository".
D. Both (b) and (c)
Answer: C

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NO.3 Consider the following class:
public class LegacySingleton {
private LegacySingleton(){}
public static LegacySingleton getAServiceInstance() {
return new LegacySingleton();
}
}
How can a bean of type LegacySingleton be created (using XML configuration)? (select one)
A. It is not possible, the constructor must be public
B. Use the factory-method attribute on the <bean> tag
C. Use the init-method attribute on the <bean> tag
D. Use autowiring
Answer: B

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NO.4 When injecting scalar/literal values into Spring beans, which of the following statements is
true? (select one)
A. Scalar values cannot be injected into setters or constructors with primitive type parameters
B. Spring performs automatic type conversion for certain data types, such as String to int
C. In XML Spring configuration, you can inject scalar values using the ref attribute of the <property
/> tag
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 Select which statement is true with respect to constructor injection with Spring (select one)
A. Multiple parameters can be dependency injected into a constructor
B. Using XML configuration, the constructor-arg element may be omitted if the constructor requires
a single parameter
C. One single bean cannot mix constructor injection with setter injection
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to Spring's ApplicationContext?
(select one)
A. The ApplicationContext eagerly instantiates all singleton beans by default
B. There are many different implementation classes which all implement the ApplicationContext
interface
C. When available, the close() method will cause any registered bean destruction code to be invoked
D. In a JUnit test using Spring support (with @ContextConfiguration annotation), it is necessary to
close the ApplicationContext manually
Answer: D

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NO.7 Select which statement(s) is/are true with respect to programming to interfaces with Spring
A. The use of interfaces allows for reduced coupling between collaborating objects
B. Spring requires all beans to implement interfaces
C. Spring requires that parameters in constructors and setters are defined using interface types
D. Spring requires all beans to have an empty constructor (either default or declared)
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following scenarios requires you to instantiate an ApplicationContext using the
'new' keyword? (Select one)
A. Running your Spring application inside a JUnit test (using SpringJUnit4ClassRunner)
B. Bootstrapping your Spring application within a Java main() method
C. Deploying your Spring application in an application server, packaged in a WAR file
D. Both a and b
Answer: B

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (MySQL 5.6 Database Administrator)
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NO.1 In a design situation, there are multiple character sets that can properly encode your data.
Which three should influence your choice of character set?
A. Disk usage when storing data
B. Syntax when writing queries involving JOINS
C. Comparing the encoded data with similar columns on other tables
D. Memory usage when working with the data
E. Character set mapping index hash size
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 Consider the Mysql Enterprise Audit plugin.
A CSV file called data.csv has 100 rows of data.
The stored procedure prepare_db ( ) has 10 auditable statements.
You run the following statements in the mydb database:
Mysql> CALL prepare_db ( );
Mysql> LOAD DATA INFILE '/tmp/data.cav' INTO TABLE mytable;
Mysql> SHOW TABLES;
How many events are added to the audit log as a result of the preceding statements?
A. 102; top-level statements are logged, but LOAD DATA INFILE is logged as a separate event.
B. 3; only the top-level statements are logged.
C. 111; top-level statements and all lower-level statements are logged.
D. 12; only top-level statements and stored procedure events are logged.
Answer: B

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Reference:
http://dev.mysql.com/doc/mysql-security-excerpt/ 5.5 /en/audit-log-plugin-loggingcontrol.html

NO.3 Which two statements are true about InnoDB auto-increment locking?
A. The auto-increment lock can be a table-level lock.
B. InnoDB never uses table-level locks.
C. Some settings for innodb_autoinc_lock_mode can help reduce locking.
D. InnoDB always protects auto-increment updates with a table-level lock.
E. InnoDB does not use locks to enforce auto-increment uniqueness.
Answer: A

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Reference: http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/ 5.6 /en/innodb-auto-increment-configurable.html

NO.4 You have a login-path named "adamlocal" that was created by using the mysql_config_editor
command.
You need to check what is defined for this login_path to ensure that it is correct for you deployment.
You execute this command:
$ mysql_config_editor print -login-path=adamlocal
What is the expected output of this command?
A. The command prints all parameters for the login-path. The password is printed in plain text.
B. The command prints all parameters for the login-path. The password is shown only when you
provide the -password option.
C. The command prints all parameter for the login-path. The password is replaced with stars.
D. The command prints the encrypted entry for the login-path. The is only possible to see if an entry
exists.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which query would you use to find connections that are in the same state for longer than
180 seconds?
A. SHOW FULL PROCESSLIST WHEER Time > 180;
B. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.EVENTS SHERE STARTS < (DATE_SUB (NOW ( ), INTERVAL
180 SECOND) );
C. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.SESSION_STATUS WHERE STATE < (DATE_SUB (NOW ( ),
INTERVAL 180 SECOND) );
D. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.PROCESSLIST WHERE TIME > 180;
Answer: A

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NO.6 You execute the following statement in a Microsoft Windows environment. There are no
conflicts in the path name definitions.
C:\> mysqld - install Mysql56 - defaults - file = C : \my -opts.cnf What is the expected outcome?
A.Mysqld acts as an MSI installer and installs the Mysql 5.6 version, with the c: \my-opts.cnf
configuration file.
B.Mysql is installed as the Windows service name Mysql56, and uses c: \my-opts.cnf as the
configuration file
C. An error message is issued because - install is not a valid option for mysqld.
D. A running Mysql 5.6 installation has its runtime configuration updated with the server variables
set in c: \my-opts.cnf.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Assume that you want to know which Mysql Server options were set to custom values.
Which two methods would you use to find out?
A. Check the configuration files in the order in which they are read by the Mysql Server and
compare them with default values.
B. Check the command-line options provided for the Mysql Server and compare them with default
values.
C. Check the output of SHOW GLOBAL VARIABLES and compare it with default values.
D. Query the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.GLOBAL_VARIABLES table and compare the result with
default values.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are using replication and the binary log files on your master server consume a lot of disk
space.
Which two steps should you perform to safely remove some of the older binary log files?
A. Ensure that none of the attached slaves are using any of the binary logs you want to delete.
B. Use the command PURGE BINARY LOGS and specify a binary log file name or a date and time to
remove unused files.
C. Execute the PURGE BINARY LOGE NOT USED command.
D. Remove all of the binary log files that have a modification date earlier than today.
E. Edit the .index file to remove the files you want to delete.
Answer: D

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NO.1 You plan to deploy a System Center 2012 infrastructure.
You plan to create and deploy a service named Service1.
You need to recommend a solution to deploy Service1 to a private cloud and a Windows
Azure subscription.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. System Center 2012 Service Manager
B. System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. The Virtual Machine Manager Self-Service Portal (VMMSSP) 2.0
D. System Center 2012 App Controller
Answer: D

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NO.2 You discover that many incidents are generated for VM2.
You need to resolve all of the incidents from Service Manager in one operation.
What should you create? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST
answer.)
A. A configuration item
B. An incident event workflow
C. A dependent activity
D. A problem
Answer: D

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NO.3 You need to recommend a solution to meet the update requirement for the Hyper-V hosts.
What should you include in the recommendation? (More than one answer choice may achieve the
goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. System Center 2012 Orchestrator runbooks
B. VMM update baselines
C. System Center 2012 Service Manager workflows
D. Configuration Manager auto deployment rules
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2. Server1 has System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) installed.
Server2 has System Center 2012 Operations Manager installed.
You need to configure Operations Manager to monitor the VMM infrastructure.
Which three management packs should you install on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of
the solution. Choose three.)
A. the Internet Information Services 7 Monitoring Management Pack
B. the Microsoft SQL Server Monitoring Management Pack
C. the File Services Management Pack
D. the Windows Server Hyper-V Management Pack
E. the Monitoring Pack for Active Directory (AD)
F. the Windows Server Operating System Management Pack
G. Windows Server DNS 2003/2008/2008 R2 Monitoring Management Pack
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.5 You need to recommend a solution for monitoring the servers in the Miami office.
What is the best recommendation for the Miami office? More than one answer choice may achieve
the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. A management server that is part of the contoso.com domain
B. A gateway server that is part of the northwindtraders.com domain
C. A management server that is part of the northwindtraders.com domain
D. A gateway server that is part of the contoso.com domain
Answer: D

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NO.6 You need to recommend a solution to apply patches to the SQL Server servers. The solution
must not affect user access to App1.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. From System Center 2012 - Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), schedule a compliance scan.
B. From Configuration Manager, schedule a deployment package for software updates.
C. From System Center 2012 - Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), create a servicing window.
D. From Configuration Manager, schedule an application deployment.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles that contains a private cloud. The private cloud is
managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure.
You create a host group named HG1. You move several Hyper-V hosts to HG1.
You plan to manage Windows updates for the hosts in HG1 by using VMM.
An administrator creates a baseline as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You discover that the updates defined in the baseline are not applied to the hosts in HG1.
You need to ensure that the required updates are deployed to the hosts in HG1.
What should you do?
A. Copy the required updates to the VMM library server.
B. Modify the properties of HG1.
C. Copy the Virtual Machine template to an alternate location.
D. Modify the properties of the baseline.
E. Synchronize the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles.
The datacenter contains a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure. The
VMM infrastructure contains a server named VMM1.
You have a host group named HostGroup1. HostGroup1 contains four virtualization hosts named
Host1, Host2, Host3, and Host4.
You plan to provide users with the ability to deploy virtual machines by using the Self-Service Portal.
The company's security policy states that only the members of a group named VMMAdmin1 can
place virtual machines on Host1 and Host2 and only the members of a group named VMMAdmin2
can place virtual machines on Host3 and Host4.
You need to recommend a cloud configuration to meet the requirements of the security policy.
What should you recommend?
A. Create two host groups named HostGroup1\Group1 and HostGroup1\Group2. Create one cloud
for each new host group. Move two servers to each host group
B. Create a host group named HostGroup1\HostGroup2. Create one cloud for HostGroup1 and one
cloud for HostGroup2. Move two servers to HostGroup2.
C. Create two clouds named Private1 and Private2. Configure the custom properties of each cloud.
D. Create two clouds named Private1 and Private2. Configure placement rules for HostGroup1.
Answer: A

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