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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-520
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 Purchasing Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 245 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about using foreign currency? (Choose two)
A. Requisition total is expressed in foreign currency.
B. Currency can be changed even after a requisition is approved.
C. Currency cannot be changed once a purchase order is approved.
D. A foreign currency reference can be specified for each purchase order line.
E. Requisition can automatically source blanket agreements or catalog quotations with foreign currency
information.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 The following transactions occurred at BUY Co., where you implemented the ERS functionality in
Oracle Purchasing:
Purchase order unit price: $10
Receipt #1001: 150 units (gross of 50 units returned at the time of receiving)
Receipt #1002: 250 units
The Pay on Receipt process is run nightly, with the summary level set to Pay Site at the supplier site. The
aging period is 0.
What would the Pay on Receipt process generate for these transactions?
A. a $3500 invoice
B. a $4000 invoice
C. a $50 invoice and a $2500 invoice
D. a $1500 invoice, a $2500 invoice, and a $50 debit memo
E. a $1000 invoice, a $2500 invoice, and a $50 debit memo
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-520   1Z0-520

NO.3 Which setup profile option allows you to send a report directly to a browser window.?
A. Viewer: Text
B. Concurrent: Report Copies
C. Flexfields: Open Key Window
D. Concurrent Report: Access Level
Answer: A

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NO.4 The buyer decides to automatically update and create sourcing rules, as part of the blanket purchase
agreement approval process. However, on clicking the Approve button, the buyer does not see any option
to update and create blanket purchase sourcing rules.
Which profile option has the buyer failed to set up?
A. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing
B. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set
C. PO: Allow Auto-generate Sourcing Rules
D. PO: Allow Autocreation of Oracle Sourcing Documents
Answer: C

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NO.5 Select the best business practice for a supplier that is being newly added to the Approved Supplier List.
A. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, Schedule Confirmation and Manufacturer Link
B. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing and Schedule Confirmation but not Manufacturer Link
C. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing and Manufacturer Link but not Schedule Confirmation
D. Allow PO Approval, Schedule Confirmation and Manufacturer Link but not Sourcing
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your company often orders Items that are sourced from multiple suppliers. At any given time, the
supplier varies depending on the supplier's current production capability and price offering. The price
varies throughout the year. For a particular Item, there is no single supplier that receives the majority of
the orders.
What is the best way to set up this Item?
A. Create blanket purchase agreements, a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers, and
approved supplier list entries.
B. Create contract purchase agreements, a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers, and
approved supplier list entries.
C. Do not create blanket or contract purchase agreements or sourcing rules. Manually AutoCreate
requisitions onto standard purchase orders.
D. Create a blanket purchase agreement for only one supplier, a sourcing rule for just that supplier, and
an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.
E. Create a contract purchase agreement for only one supplier, a sourcing rule for just that supplier, and
an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-520   1Z0-520   1Z0-520 examen

NO.7 A recent shipment of item A was routed to the inspection department according to standard practice, but
no receipt for item A is available in the system for inspection.
What might have happened?
A. Requester set the receipt routing to Direct Delivery in the requisition,
B. Receiving clerk created an express receipt instead of a standard one.
C. Buyer changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt in the purchase order line.
D. Buyer changed the routing to Direct Delivery at the supplier site level for this supplier.
E. Receiving clerk changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt at the time of receiving.
Answer: E

Oracle examen   1Z0-520   1Z0-520 examen   1Z0-520

NO.8 Your customer wants to convert both RFQs and Quotations to have tracking for Small Business Audit
trail. The volume for Quotations is very high and only Approved RFQs and Quotations are being
converted. What would you recommend as the best conversion strategy for RFQs and Quotations?
A. Data Load both RFQs and Quotations.
B. Manually enter both RFQs and Quotations.
C. Manually enter RFQs, and Data Load Quotations.
D. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for both RFQs and Quotations.
E. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for RFQs and Data Load Quotations,
F. Manually enter RFQs, and use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for the loading of Quotations.
Answer: F

Oracle   1Z0-520   1Z0-520

NO.9 Which four are supported by the Receiving Open Interface (ROI)? (Choose four.)
A. Unordered receipt
B. Dynamic locators
C. Deliver transactions
D. Movement statistics
E. Correct transactions
F. Receive transactions
G. Transfer transactions
Answer: C,E,F,G

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NO.10 When implementing Purchasing at FGH Corp., you notice several administrative inefficiencies due to a
poorly maintained supplier list. Identify three inefficiencies. (Choose three.)
A. entering suppliers twice
B. issuing specific invoices
C. generating inaccurate returns
D. generating inaccurate receipts
E. generating accurate supplier reports
F. issuing more payments than necessary
G. issuing more purchase orders than necessary
Answer: A,F,G

Oracle   certification 1Z0-520   1Z0-520   1Z0-520   1Z0-520 examen

NO.11 Which window in Purchasing would you use to copy on existing global Approved Supplier List entry and
make it local to your organization?
A. Supplier Statue
B. Request For Quotation
C. Supplier-Item Attribute
D. Approved Supplier List Statuses
E. Sourcing Rule/Bill of Distribution Assignments
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-520   1Z0-520

NO.12 Which three financial options can be defaulted when you enter a new supplier? (Choose three.)
A. Ship Via
B. Default Buyer
C. RFQ-Only Site
D. Bill-To Location
E. Supplier Classification
F. Payment Bank Account
Answer: A,C,D

Oracle examen   1Z0-520   1Z0-520 examen   1Z0-520

NO.13 A medium-sized multinational company based in US has two business groups (B6), BGI (for US) and
B62 (for Europe), with position approval hierarchies HI and H2, respectively.
The company has a policy that only the Controllers and those above them can approve capital Items on
requisitions and purchase orders. However, the Purchase Manager (who reports to the Controller) must
also be able to authorize capital purchases.
The account range for capital items is: 2000-2599.
The relevant approval limits are:
1. Purchase Manager in both BGs: $100,000
2) Controller in BGI: $500,000 3) Controller in BG2: $200,000
Which two options represent a valid and efficient approval process? (Choose two.)
A. An employee in B62 raises a requisition for $5000. This is verified by the employee's manager and
forwarded to the group Controller in BGI who approves it.
B. An employee in BG2 raises a capital requisition for $250,000, which is verified by the employee's
manager and then forwarded to the group Controller in BG2 who approves it.
C. The buyer hi BGI raises a standard purchase order for $250,000 with the charge account 2106. The
Purchase Manager verifies it and forwards it to the controller in BGI who approves it.
D. A buyer in BG2 raises a purchase order for $10,000 with charge for inventory items to be stocked in an
asset subinventory. The Purchase Manager in BG2 verifies and forwards it to the Controller in BG2.
E. The shop floor supervisor in BGI raises a requisition for a new drilling machine for $250,000. The
supervisor's manager (Production Manager) verifies the requisition and forwards it to the Controller in BGI
for a final approval.
F. The Purchase Manager in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000 for computer equipment. The Controller in
B62 approves it and instructs the buyer to ensure a 2-year warranty on this equipment. The buyer in BG2
places the order on the supplier.
Answer: C,F

Oracle   1Z0-520 examen   1Z0-520

NO.14 An approved supplier list (ASL) is being defined in a multiorganization environment, which two
statements are valid?
A. Setting up a Global ASL is mandatory.
B. If a supplier item has a local ASL setup, you cannot set it up on a Global ASL.
C. The supplier for an item-supplier association must be global, while the supplier site can be local.
D. Company X has set up Planning would source planned orders. The approval status of the supplier can
be set to New or Approved.
Answer: C,D

Oracle examen   1Z0-520   1Z0-520 examen   1Z0-520 examen   1Z0-520

NO.15 There are several types of RFQ, Including Catalog RFQ, Standard RFQ, and Bid RFQ.
There are only two classes of RFQ. Identify the two valid classes and their appropriate purposes.
(Choose two.)
A. Bid Class, which supports Shipments
B. Standard Class, which supports Items
C. Planned Class, which supports Catalogs
D. Catalog Class, which supports Price Breaks
E. Cost Class, which supports Bid Price Breaks
F. Category Class, which supports Supplier Catalogs
G. Contract Class, which supports Total Dollars Agreed to
Answer: A,D

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NO.16 Company X is identifying the major aspects of its inventory organization structure and definitions. Which
two actions or statements would be correct? (Choose two.)
A. An Inventory location can be an Office Site only If it Is also a registered office.
B. It can consider manufacturing facilities, warehouses, distribution centers, and branch offices, as well as
other entities.
C. It does not need a minimum of two inventory organizations in a master/child relationship, but it is a best
practice to do so.
D. The financial impact of inventory parameters is limited to Purchase Price Variance and Intransit
Account for Interorganization shipments and Transfer Credits for the sending organization.
E. You can control inventory organizations across different operating units from one responsibility but you
cannot have ft default to one operating unit. The last used operating unit used before you tog off would
default when you log in the next time.
Answer: B,C

Oracle examen   1Z0-520   1Z0-520   1Z0-520

NO.17 When you enter a receipt; you first use the Find Expected Receipts window to locate the source
document for the receipt.
Select four valid source documents for a receipt. (Choose four.)
A. An approved internal requisition line
B. An intransit shipment within your Inventory
C. A shipment from a supplier based on a purchase order
D. A move order from Inventory for material storage relocation
E. A return from a customer based on a return material authorization (RMA)
F. A shipment from inventory backed by an internal safes order generated by an internal requisition
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.18 Which control option prevents changes or additions to the purchase order or release, but maintains the
ability to receive and match invoices?
A. Hold
B. Firm
C. Close
D. Freeze
E. Finally Close
Answer: D

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NO.19 A multinational company is setting up the sourcing rules and approved supplier list (ASL) to source
inventory items across different organizations.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. You do not need to create a local ASL if you create a Global ASL
B. Inventory organizations used in the sourcing rules must be set up in the Shipping Networks.
C. You need to match the supplier between a sourcing rule and an ASL, but not the supplier site.
D. The country of origin must be entered in the ASL, or it would not be available on the purchasing
document.
E. A commodity can be assigned to a supplier at both the global level and at the local level, and the local
level assignment takes precedence.
Answer: B,E

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NO.20 Identify the correct sequence of steps in the Procure to Pay period dose process.
A. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer
and review. > Close the period in AP. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile AP activity for the period. >
Close the PO period.
B. Prepare for period close. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer
and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period. > Post
journal entries in GL
C. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer
and review. > Close the period in PO. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile PO activity for the period. >
Close the AP period.
D. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer
and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Post journal entries in GL >
Close the PO period.
E. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Transfer and review. > Close
the period in AP. > Create accounting. > Post journal entries in GL. > Reconcile AP activity for the
period. > Close the PO period.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-550
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (JD Edwards EnterpriseOne 9 Configurable Network Computing Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 EnterpriseOne subsystem UBE jobs provide the system the ability to run without interaction and to
avoid the fixed cost of repeated UBE startup overhead. Which of the options would make UBE a
good candidate for the subsystem?
A. Long running jobs
B. Short duration jobs
C. Process intensive jobs
D. Light-weight process jobs
E. High memory usage jobs
Answer: B

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NO.2 Regardless of the platform choice, Work with Server Jobs is the key mechanism to review the status of
a UBE job that has been submitted to server. After a job has been submitted, which of the following
configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function an
administrator cannot do from Work with Server Jobs?
A. Print Jobs
B. Change Job Priority
C. View Logs for Job
D. Terminate Jobs
E. Resubmit a Job
Answer: B

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NO.3 When selecting a Path Code Database as part of the EnterpriseOne Platform Pack installation, which
two get installed on the server.?
A. System/Foundation code
B. Path Code specifications and runtime libraries
C. Database scripts to create and load databases
D. Server Manager Agent
E. Path Code Databases - Central Objects, Business Data, ...
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 ACME is working on setting up security for *PUBLIC, individual users, and roles. What security type
grants permission to run an application regardless of other security settings?
A. Application
B. Action
C. Exit
D. Exclusive Application
E. Tab
Answer: D

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-550   1Z0-550   1Z0-550

NO.5 ACME has decided to begin their EnterPriseOne implementation using the Oracle VM Templates for
JDE. Which three types are available for immediate download and quick implementation via e delivery?
A. Enterprise Server
B. HTML Server
C. Portal Server
D. Deployment Server
E. Database Server
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 When deploying a Full Package to an Enterprise Server, what defines the location of the object
specifications to be used during runtime that the package deployment modifies?
A. The path code spec directory
B. The package spec directory
C. JDE.INI
D. OCM
E. The spec.ini file in the package spec directory
Answer: E

Oracle examen   1Z0-550   1Z0-550   certification 1Z0-550

NO.7 What configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function?
A. Activity Rules
B. User Roles
C. Constants
D. Allowed Actions
E. Save Location
Answer: D

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NO.8 What three object types are promoted via Object Management Workbench (OMW)?
A. UDCs
B. User Overrides
C. Data Dictionary Item
D. Favorites
E. Serialized Objects
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-550   1Z0-550   certification 1Z0-550   1Z0-550 examen

NO.9 Sever Manager provides a unified interface where administrators can view information regarding
EnterpriseOne. What are the three major functions of Server Manager?
A. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Installed Programs
B. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Configurations
C. Check the EnterpriseOne Server OS Patch level
D. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Process
E. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Task Manager
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 ACME is about to upgrade their Development environment from ERP 8.0 to EnterpriseOne 9.00.
Which pre-upgrade task is NOT recommended by the EnterpriseOne Upgrade documentation?
A. Verify Media Object queue setting in P98MOQUE
B. Generate serialized objects for the development environment
C. Transfer production versions to prototype using UBE R9830512
D. Make sure all work in progress objects have been checked into the development environment
E. Check the modification and merge flags through the Specification Merge Selection application
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Exalogic Elastic Cloud X2-2 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 113 Q&As

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NO.1 If you cannot connect to ILOM over the network, which connection method would you use?
A. USB
B. Serial connection
C. Web
D. SSH
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-569   1Z0-569   1Z0-569

NO.2 Which two network channels are necessary to be configured on the admin server?
A. HTTP client channel
B. T3 channel
C. SDP channel
D. EoIB channel
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 When you run the Exalogic Configuration Utility scripts the first time, which three verification steps are
performed? (Choose Three)
A. BOND1 interfaces for all compute nodes
B. ILOM interfaces for all compute nodes
C. ILOM interfaces for storage heads
D. NET0 interfaces for all compute nodes
E. BOND2 interfaces for storage heads
Answer: BCD

Oracle   1Z0-569   1Z0-569

NO.4 Which three are features of the Sun ZFS Storage 7320 appliance that is used in Exalogic machines?
(Choose Three)
A. Entry level cluster option
B. Multi-protocol support
C. 100 TB of usable capacity
D. Replication and snapshots
E. 80 TB of usable capacity
Answer: A,B,D

Oracle   1Z0-569   certification 1Z0-569   1Z0-569

NO.5 Which statement is true about the default cluster configuration of Exaloglc's storage appliance?
A. The default storage pool is assigned to each storage head.
B. The default storage pool is assigned to the passive storage head.
C. A separate storage pool is allocated to each storage head.
D. The default storage pool is assigned to the active storage head.
Answer: D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-569   certification 1Z0-569   1Z0-569

NO.6 In ILOM, you can configure up to _________ alert rules.
A. 12
B. 20
C. 15
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.7 In the CLI for the gateway switch, the command [option][option] . . . format of commands is used for
__________ .
A. General hardware administration
B. InfiniBand fabric control and management
C. ILOM access
D. Launching the web interface
Answer: B

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NO.8 In a reference Exalogic topology, all compute nodes _________.
A. Use locally installed application binaries for execution
B. Are subdivided using InfiniBand partitions based on application deployment topology
C. Remotely access software binaries installed on the shared Sun ZFS storage
D. Use SDP for all interprocess communication
Answer: D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-569   certification 1Z0-569

NO.9 When using OHS and the WebLogic Server proxy plugin with dynamic server lists, what, if any,
configuration is required at the OHS tier when adding additional WebLogic Server instances?
A. OHS must be restarted anduponrestart;the dynamic server list will be automatically updated with newly
added server(s).
B. OHS httpd.conf must be updated with the newly added WebLogic Server(s).
C. Nothing. Newly added WebLogic Server instances are automatically picked up and the plugin is
dynamically reconfigured.
D. The admin server must be restarted when the cluster has been reconfigured. This will, in turn, notify
the web tier (OHS).
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-569 examen   1Z0-569

NO.10 In order to scale the WebLogic Server cluster beyond a single computers node, the domain must be
propagated to additional computers nodes. How is this best accomplished?
A. The domain can simply be zipped (using tar, cpio, or jar), copied over, and extracted on the other
computer node.
B. Web logic Server has specific commands like pack.sh and unpack.sh that are designed for this
purpose.
C. The step can be accomplished most easily through the admin server when the second machine is
added to the cluster.
D. With Exalogic Elastic Cloud software, domain propagation is automatic when additional machine is
added to the cluster.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-456
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Customer Relationship Management 11g Sales Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

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NO.1 Identify the metric that provides the sum of all weighted revenue values for all forecast items
in the
forecast period.
A. Quota metric
B. Expected Forecast metric
C. Estimated Adjustment metric
D. Pipeline metric
E. Closed Revenue metric
Answer: B

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NO.2 Identify three functions of the Activate Sales Quota Plan process.
A. creates territory and resource quota records
B. sends workflow notifications to territory owners and administrators
C. activates territory quota spread formula
D. synchronizes territory quota changes
E. sets the sales quota plan status to Active
Answer: A,D,E

Oracle   1z0-456   1z0-456

NO.3 When the opportunity import process was initially created, the Customer Data Management
Duplicatesfield was left blank. You are now using this process to import flat files; each flat file
contains 50 records.While reviewing the data, you happen to notice that the same opportunity is
included in two separate flat files, but the value of the Sales Stage field is different in the second file.
If you import both files, what will happen?
A. The second Import process will fail.
B. The second import process will succeed, but the duplicate opportunity record will fail.
C. The Fusion system will create a resolution request.
D. The Fusion system will create a duplicate record.
E. The Fusion system will update the opportunity record with the value from the second file.
Answer: E

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NO.4 The sales manager in a company conducts product demos for customers frequently as part of
lead management. As part of his activity, the sales manager has two coordinate with different
departments in the company through emails to conduct the product demos effectively.
Coordination with other departments by emails is a time-consuming activity and requires multiple
follow ups. Choose the correct solution to automate these coordination activities.
A. UseAssessmentTemplates.
B. UseSalesMethods.
C. UseTaskTemplates.
D. UseResourcesGroups.
E. UseAssessmentTemplates andTaskTemplate.
Answer: E

Oracle   1z0-456   1z0-456   1z0-456 examen

NO.5 There are four product lines in your sales organization. Each product has two subcategories.
Identify the product dimension attributes used for the definition of the territory structure.
A. Dimensions
B. Dimension Parameters
C. Dimension Members
D. Dimensions and Dimension Parameter
E. Dimensions, Dimension Parameters, and Dimension Members
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1z0-456   1z0-456 examen   1z0-456   1z0-456

NO.6 After adding a new product to a catalog, the product does not appear within the catalog.
Identity the three actions you would take to resolve the problem.
A. Verify theproduct's life-cycle phaseand see if the start and end dates are correct.
B. Check that the product is listed in the correct catalog.
C. Verify that the catalog is set as a Rollup Catalog.
D. Verify that the catalog is not a Template Catalog.
E. Verify that the catalog edits have been published.
F. Verify that the catalog contains at least one promotion template for the new product.
Answer: A,B,E

Oracle examen   certification 1z0-456   1z0-456

NO.7 Identify the two correct statements regarding nonrevenue forecasts.
A. Multiple overlay resources cannot be forecast to the same primary deal.
B. Organizations have to explicitly enable the nonrevenue forecasting feature.
C. Nonrevenue forecast allows the same revenue to the forecast multiple times.
D. You cannot designate territories as forecastable for nonrevenue.
E. Nonrevenue forecast has no relationship with nonrevenue; quota goals set on the territory.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1z0-456   1z0-456   certification 1z0-456

NO.8 Comprehensive reference and Competitor management helps a sales organization to
increase sales velocity and sales productivity. Which is true regarding Oracle Fusion reference and
competitor management?
A. Enables a sales organization to track and manage activity threshold for a competitor.
B. Enables a sales organization to track revenue won to date, while using reference
C. Enables a sales organization to develop an end-to-end customer reference program from
reference
program development, enrolling, and managing reference.
D. Enables sales organization to develop a comprehensive SWOT analysis of a competitor.
E. Enables sales organization to develop a comprehensive SWOT analysis of a reference.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   certification 1z0-456   certification 1z0-456   certification 1z0-456

NO.9 Which three objectives are achieved by a spread formula?
A. Calculate the distribution of an amount among selected child territories regardless of the metrics
B. Spread the variance between the parent territory quota and the sum of child territory quotas to
the child territories.
C. Calculate the ratios to use for the child territories through the use of the metric defined.
D. Equally distribute quota from the parent territory to child territories.
E. Distribute quota only to the parent territory.
Answer: B,C,D

Oracle examen   certification 1z0-456   certification 1z0-456   1z0-456

NO.10 A sales representative has closed revenue of amount X for a territory for the year 2011, and
amount Y for the same territory for the year 2009. Amount X is 122% of amount Y. The market
potential for the territory for the year 2012 is an additional 10%. Select the best rule to identify the
appropriate quota amount (110% of amount X) for the same sales rep for the territory for 2012.
A. percentage change in a measure over three name time periods
B. X% growth of a measure overthree year exponential moving average
C. weighted average of a measure over the past three years
D. Scale a measure from a past period by X%.
E. percentage change in a measure value over two named periods
Answer: E

Oracle   certification 1z0-456   certification 1z0-456   1z0-456 examen

NO.11 Select the three statements that describe the use of sales methodology in opportunity
management.
A. Selection of sales methodology is mandatory for every opportunity.
B. Sales methodologies consist of one or more sales stages.
C. Selection of sales methodology is optional for an opportunity.
D. Sales methodologiesbest describe an organization's sales process
E. Sales methodologies include sales stages; each sales stage can be tied to a range of win
probability
and status.
Answer: B,E

Oracle   1z0-456 examen   certification 1z0-456   1z0-456

NO.12 Identify two components of sales coach that can assist in bringing opportunities to a
successful close.
A. recommended documents
B. process steps
C. stalled deal limit
D. task
E. opportunity status
Answer: A,B

certification Oracle   1z0-456 examen   1z0-456 examen   1z0-456

NO.13 After creating custom fields for opportunities, you are ready to import legacy data into the
Fusion
System. Which step is necessary before the opportunity data can be imported?
A. Navigate to the Application Composer and click the Generate button in the Import and Export,
section.
B. Navigate to the Application Composer. Select the Enable import / Export check box for each
custom
field in the Import / Export section.
C. Navigate to the Application Composer. Click the Refresh button in the Custom Objects section.
D. Navigate to the task:Manage Import / Export for Custom Fields. Click the Synchronize button.
E. No special configuration steps are necessary before legacy opportunity data is imported into
custom
fields.
Answer: B

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NO.14 An organization is implementing close opportunity management functionality. Select three
profile options available to configure the close opportunity management process in Oracle Fusion
Sales.
A. Close Opportunity How Enabled
B. Close Opportunity Reference Enabled
C. Close Opportunity Win/Loss Enabled
D. Close Opportunity Competitor Enabled
E. Close Opportunity Status Enabled
Answer: C,D,E

Oracle   1z0-456   1z0-456 examen   1z0-456

NO.15 A company is, interested in assigning experienced and skilled sales representatives to their
key
Customers. Which two dimensions must be used for achieving this?
A. Geography
B. Account
C. Customer Size
D. Organization Type
E. Product
Answer: A,B

Oracle examen   1z0-456 examen   1z0-456 examen   1z0-456

NO.16 You are asked to define lookup that provides the ability to define a reference set of values
based on a lookup code. Select the lookup type that you should choose for this scenario.
A. Standard lookup
B. Value Set
C. Set-Enabled lookup
D. Common lookup
E. Value-Enabled lookup
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1z0-456   1z0-456

NO.17 You are configuring the Sales Assignment Manager based on resource candidates and credit
allocation candidates. In your company, resources change frequently but credit allocation is more
stable.
You a currently deciding how to set the Fusion cache values.
Select the true statement based on this scenario.
A. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set at the Owner Objectlevel because resources change
frequently;the
Sales cache should be updated daily.
B. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set at the Candidate Object level, but must be the same across all
levels; because resources change frequently, the cache should be updated daily.
C. Oracle Fusion cache refresh is set on individual candidate objects; Resource should be set to dally
but
Credit Allocation might be set to weekly.
D. This scenario can't be accomplished because it is not possible to have multiple candidate objects
for
one owner object.
E. Oracle Fusion Objects are not cached; therefore no cache configuration is necessary.
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-456 examen   1z0-456 examen

NO.18 While configuring the Assignment Manager, you activate and create assignment mappings
involving
Geography ID, Industry and Customer Size. After an Internal review, your company decides to no
longer
base decisions on industry. Your supervisor asks a coworker to remove any industry considerations
from
the Fusion Assignment Manager. Your coworker does this by navigating to Industry and selecting the
Inactive check box, but forgets to modify the existing mappings that already use Industry.
Select the expected system behavior based on this scenario.
A. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function; however no new
assignment mapping could use Industry.
B. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function, but the concept
of
Industry would be automatically removed. The rule would continue on all other criteria.
C. Any assignment mapping that uses Industry would be automatically deleted.
D. Any time the existing mapping is used. Fusion will automatically create a resolution request.
E. This can't be done; assignment objects can t be set to inactive if there is a mapping defined using
the
object
Answer: E

Oracle   1z0-456   1z0-456 examen

NO.19 A territory manager has created a proposal. When the proposal is validated, it can create
active
territories. Identify a condition that would result in an error during the validation process in Oracle
Fusion
Sales.
A. Parent territory covers all the dimensions of its child territories.
B. Active resources were added as dimension members.
C. Parent territory does not cover all the dimensions of its child territories.
D. A valid product has been added as a dimension member.
E. Partner sales representatives were added to child territories.
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-456   1z0-456 examen   1z0-456 examen   certification 1z0-456

NO.20 A company has implemented Oracle Fusion Lead Management. The sales manager in the
company has asked the sales team to qualify leads for further follow ups with customers/prospects.
What are the three parameters that determine lead qualification?
A. approved budget
B. lead owner assigned
C. definite purchase timeline
D. Identified decision maker
E. ratings
Answer: A,C,E

Oracle   certification 1z0-456   certification 1z0-456

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-457
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Enterprise Manager 12c Essentials Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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NO.1 Identify two true statements about the setup and use of identity management within Oracle
Enterprise manager.
A. Credentials are used to access targets that are monitored and managed by Oracle Enterprise
Manager.
B. Repository-Base Authentication is the default authentication.
C. Single Sign-On Authentication is the default authentication.
D. Credentials are used as the root of the data masking key.
E. Using the SCOTT/TIGER identify, you can demonstrate but not configure Oracle Enterprise
Manager.
Answer: A,B

Oracle   1Z0-457   1Z0-457

NO.2 Oracle Enterprise Manager Groups enable users to _________.
A. Send email notifications based on Repeat Frequency
B. Specify monitoring and policy settings once and apply them as often as needed
C. Group only homogeneous targets
D. View the summary status of the targets within the group
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three configuration management functions are included in the Oracle Enterprise
manager
WebLogic Management Pack Enterprise Edition?
A. Comparing user files that are not associated with the Oracle Middleware home
B. Tracking configuration drift
C. Detecting policy violations
D. Tracking memory drift
E. Generating WebLogic regulatory compliance exceptions
F. Comparing configurations across WebLogic Server domains
Answer: B,E,F

Oracle   1Z0-457   certification 1Z0-457

NO.4 Which three are key elements in the plugin.xml file for Oracle Enterprise Management?
A. CredentialInfo
B. CredentialType
C. CredentialSet
D. CredentialSetRow
E. CredentialMember
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 In Oracle Enterprise Manager, what would you use for a job that you want to save and use
again
later?
A. The job Repository
B. The Job Scheduler
C. The Job Library
D. The Job Activity Service
E. The Job Reuse Template
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-457   1Z0-457 examen   1Z0-457 examen

NO.6 Which feature provides real-time change detection?
A. Grid Control
B. Configuration Change Console
C. Application Configuration Console
D. Database Control
Answer: B

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NO.7 When you create reports using Information Publisher, which three statements are true?
A. You always start from the beginning when you create custom reports.
B. Both default categories and subcategories can be used for out of the-box reports.
C. Time-period and/or target parameters can be used for viewing reports.
D. Using reporting elements, you can add a variety of information to your report.
E. No additional customization is provided after the reporting elements are assembled.
Answer: C,D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-027
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Exadata Database Machine Administration, Software Release 11.x)
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two are true about Exadata storage server alerts?
A. Metric alerts are never stateful.
B. Metrics have no thresholds set on them by default.
C. SNMP alert notifications can be sent to only one destination.
D. Metric threshold; if set, will persist across storage server reboots.
E. SMTP alert notifications must be sent to both ASR manager and Enterprise Manager Agents
Answer: D,E

certification Oracle   1Z0-027   1Z0-027   certification 1Z0-027

NO.2 No access is based on ROWID, or virtual columns.
Which two access paths will always generate either a set of “cell smart table scan” or a set of “cell
smart index scan” requested?
A. Full scans on sorted hash clustered tables executed in parallel
B. Full table scans on index organized tables executed in parallel.
C. Full table scans on heap tables executed in parallel
D. Full scans on index clustered tables executed in parallel
E. full scans on hash clustered tables executed in serially
F. fast full scans on B*Tree indexes executed in parallel
G. full index scans on B*Tree indexes executed in parallel
Answer: B,G

Oracle   1Z0-027 examen   1Z0-027   certification 1Z0-027   1Z0-027
8. You must drop all celldisks on all the cells in a quarter rack as part of a reconfiguration project,
to
support normal redundancy interleaving.
Select two actions that describe the operating system (O/S) account on the cells to which you
should log in, and the tool that may be used to drop the celldisks.
A. To the CELLMONITOR account using CELLCLI interactively on each cell.
B. To CELLADMIN account calling CELLCLI on all cells using DCLI
C. To either the CELIMONITOR or the CELLADMIN account calling CELLCLI on all cells using
DCLI
D. To the CELLMONITOR account calling CELLCLI on all cells using DCLI
E. To the CELLADMIN account using CELLCLI interactively on each cell
F. To either the CELLMONITOR or CELLADMIN account calling interactively on each cell
Answer: B,E

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-027   1Z0-027 examen   certification 1Z0-027

NO.3 The largest number of columns for any table is 29.

NO.4 Which three storage components are available after the standard initial Database machine
deployment?
A. The DATA_<DBM_Name> ASM diskgroup
B. The RECO_<DBM_Name> ASM diskgroup
C. Mirrored system partitions on hard disk 0 and hard disk 1
D. The DBFS_DG diskgroup with external redundancy
E. Exadata Smart Flash Cache using all of the flashdisk space
Answer: A,B,D

Oracle examen   1Z0-027 examen   1Z0-027 examen

NO.5 Which two are true about the use of DBFS in a Database Machine environment?
A. DBFS must be used to bulk load data into a database on the Database Machine if the staging
area requires Exadata based shared storage.
B. DBFS must be used to have a POSIX compliant shared storage solution that is accessible from
the database servers on a Database Machine.
C. DBFS must be used to bulk load data into a production database on the Database Machine.
D. DBFSmust use the DBFS_DG diskgroup for any DBFS store.
E. DBFS must be used to have a POSIX-compliant Exadata-based shared storage solution.
Answer: A,B

Oracle   1Z0-027 examen   1Z0-027   1Z0-027   certification 1Z0-027
5. Which tool will provide you with diagnostic information for all the software log, trace files, and
OS
information on Database Machine?
A. dbmcheck.sh
B. diagget.sh
C. oswatcher
D. adrci
E. Enterprise Manager
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-027   1Z0-027
6. You have a partitioned database grid on an X3-2 full rack with two four-node RAC clusters
called
CLUSA and CLUSB. The storage grid, however, has not been partitioned.
Which files on which servers must be modified after connecting an Exadata storage full expansion
rack to your X3-2 Exadata Database Machine on the InfiniBand network so that the cells on the
expansion rack are added to the storage grid?
A. The CELLINIT.ORA files on database servers in CLUSA
B. The CELLIP .ORA files on the database servers in CLUSA
C. The CELLINIT.ORA files on the database servers in CLUSB
D. The CELLIP .ORA files on all existing and newly added Exadata storage servers.
E. The CELLIP .ORA files on the database servers in CLUSB
Answer: B,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-027 examen   1Z0-027 examen   1Z0-027
7. A read-only application is in development and is using a test database on a Database Machine.
You are examining SQL statements from this application in an attempt to determine which ones
will benefit from the Exadata Smart scan capability.
The following is true about the tables used by the application:
1. The data for the tables has just been loaded.
2. There are no applications accessing the tables currently.
3. None of the indexes are compressed or reverse key indexes.
4. The tables use the default organization type data.

NO.6 You recently upgraded your Exadata image to the latest release; previously you were using
11.2.0.3.
At the same time, you decide to address some performance problems as follows:
You noticed increased latency for the database log writer, especially during the quarterly battery
learn cycle on the cells.
You have complaints of erratic performance from certain write-intensive applications.
Which two actions could improve performance in these areas?
A. Enable write-back flashcache by setting lunWriteCacheMode to Write Back Mode.
B. Use ALTER TABLE in the database to set CELL_FLASH_CACHE = KEEP for the tables
belonging to the affected application.
C. Configure Smart Flash Log on the cells to use some of these of the space on the cell flash
devices.
D. Configure the table belonging to the affected application using CELLCLI, to the set
CELL_FLASH_CACHE = KEEP .
E. Configure Smart Flash Log on the database server to use server flash memory.
Answer: B,C

certification Oracle   1Z0-027 examen   1Z0-027   1Z0-027   1Z0-027 examen   1Z0-027

NO.7 The only data types for the table are varchar (2), number, or date.

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-593
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Real Application Clusters 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of these is not recommended as the basis for an ASM disk in a shared storage
configuration?
A. Raw disk partition
B. NFS file
C. Raw logical volumes
D. iSCSI targets
Answer: A

Oracle   1z0-593 examen   1z0-593 examen
Explanation:
*Block or raw devices are not supported by Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) or Database
Configuration Assistant (DBCA). However, manually configured raw or block devices are supported
by Oracle, but not recommended.
* Shared disk access requires some sort of networked storage
-
iSCSI (not D)
-
Fibre Channel/SCSI
-
NFS (not B)
*A logical volume issupported in less complicated configurations where a logical volume is mapped
to a LUN, or a logical volume uses disks or raw partitions.

NO.2 You are creating an Oracle Cluster database using DBCA. The "Memory size (SGA and PGA)"
field is supplied on value of 2000 MB. The default Block used for the database is __________.
A. 2 KB
B. 4 KB
C. 8 KB
D. 16 KB
E. 32 KB
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-593   1z0-593   1z0-593 examen   1z0-593 examen
Explanation:
Note: *In the Block Size list, enter the size in bytes or accept the default. Oracle Database data is
stored in these blocks. One data block corresponds to a specific number of bytes of physical space
on disk. While using pre-defined templates, this field is not enabled since the database will be
created with the default block size of 8 KB. But while using the custom option, you can change block
size. Selecting a block size other than the default 8 KB value requires advanced knowledge and
should only be done when absolutely required.

NO.3 Which step will you have to perform on Windows to restore the OCR that you did not do on
Linux?
A. Identify existing backups with the -backup option
B. Use the Service Control Panel to stop services
C. Review the contents of the backup with the ocrdump command
D. Make sure that the restored OCR files are valid
Answer: B

certification Oracle   certification 1z0-593   1z0-593   certification 1z0-593
Explanation:
See step 2) below. Restoring the Oracle Cluster Registry on Windows-Based Systems
Use the following procedure to restore the OCR on Windows-based systems:
cluvfy comp ocr -n all [-verbose]
Note:
Restoring the Oracle Cluster Registry on UNIX-Based SystemsUse the following procedure to
restore the OCR on UNIX-based systems:
Repeat this command on each node in your Oracle RAC cluster.
Note:
Prior to running the crsctl start crs command in step 4, run the following command to verify that all
processes except init.cssd fatal are inactive:
ps -ef|grep cssd
Repeat this command on each node in your Oracle RAC cluster.
Reference: Oracle Database Oracle Clusterware and Oracle Real Application Clusters
Administration and Deployment Guide

NO.4 Once OUI recognizes a set of nodes in a cluster, which three choices does it offer when
installing the Oracle Database 11g Release 2 software?
A. You can only install the Oracle Database with the RAC option on selected nodes.
B. OUI forcesyouto configure ASM for shared storage before proceeding.
C. You can install the Oracle Database as a single instance or with the RAC option on all the nodes.
D. You can install the Oracle Database as a single instance or with the RAC option on selected nodes.
E. You can install Oracle RAC One Node.
Answer: B,D,E

Oracle   1z0-593 examen   certification 1z0-593   1z0-593   1z0-593
Explanation:
B, D: Complete the prerequisite tasks for converting to an Oracle RAC database:
Oracle Clusterware and Oracle Database software is installed on all target nodes.
Oracle Clusterware is started.
(D)The Oracle Database binary is enabled for Oracle RAC on all target nodes.
(B) Shared storage is configured and accessible from all nodes.
User equivalency is configured for the operating system user performing the conversion.
Enterprise Manager agents are configured and running on all nodes, and are configured with the
cluster and host information.
The database being converted has been backed up successfully.
E:Installing Oracle RAC One Node is available starting with Oracle Database 11g Release 2
(11.2.0.2).
Note:
*By default, the standard Oracle Database 11g software installation process installs the Oracle
RAC option when OUI recognizes that you are performing the installation on a cluster.

NO.5 Which two actions do you need to take in Oracle Grid Infrastructure 11g Release 2 to enable
debugging for the resource ora.docrac.vip?
A. Make sure you are logged in as a privileged user.
B. crsctldebug res ora.docrac1.vip:1
C. crsctlset log res ora.docrac1.vip:1
D. crsctldebug log res ora.docrac1.vip:0
Answer: A,C

Oracle   1z0-593   certification 1z0-593   certification 1z0-593
Explanation:
A:You can use crsctl commands as the root user to enable dynamic debugging for the Oracle
Clusterware Cluster Ready Services (CRS), Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR), Cluster Synchronization
Services (CSS), and the Event Manager (EVM).
C: You can enable debugging for the CRS, OCR, CSS, and EVM modules and their components by
setting environment variables or by issuing crsctl debug commands using the following syntax:
crsctl debug log module_name component:debugging_level
Reference: Oracle Clusterware Administration and Deployment Guide,Component Level Debugging

NO.6 Which two options are checked by the Oracle Universal Installer, when you first install Oracle
Software on a system?
A. if the OFA-compliant path is available
B. oraInst.loc should exist
C. that the user running the installation has permissions to write to the designated path
D. that you are running OUI as a DBA user
Answer: A,B

Oracle examen   certification 1z0-593   1z0-593   1z0-593   1z0-593   1z0-593
Explanation:
A:
*When installing an OFA-compliant database using Oracle Universal Installer, ORACLE_BASE is
set to /pm/app/oracle by default.
*All Oracle products on CD-ROM are OFA-compliant; that is, Oracle Universal Installer places
Oracle products in directory locations that follow OFA guidelines
B: Every Oracle software installation has an associated Central Inventory where the details of all the
Oracle products installed on a host are registered. The Central Inventory is located in thedirectory
that the inventory pointer file specifies. Each Oracle software installation has its own Central
Inventory pointer file that is unknown to another Oracle software installation.
Default Inventory Pointer File Locations
PlatformDefault Inventory Pointer Location Linux LinuxPPC /etc/oraInst.loc AIX /etc/oraInst.loc
Solaris SPARC HPUX-IA64 HPUX-PARISC /var/opt/oracle/oraInst.loc Windows Windows.X64
Windows.IA64 HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE/Software/Oracle/inst.loc

NO.7 The Oracle Cluster Health Monitor can't _________.
A. Detect and analyze OS and duster resource for problems in Oracle Clusterware and RAC cluster
B. Track OS resource consumption at each node, process, and device level continuously
C. Be installed on Windows Server 20O3 SP1
D. Collect and analyze the cluster-wide data
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1z0-593   certification 1z0-593   certification 1z0-593   1z0-593
Explanation:
Incorrect: Oracle Cluster Health Monitoris designed to detect and analyze operating system (OS) and
cluster resource related degradation and failures in order to bring more explanatory power to many
issues that occur in clusters where Oracle Clusterware and Oracle RAC are running such as node
eviction. It continuously tracks the OS resource consumption at each node, process, and device level.
It collects and analyzes this cluster-wide data. In real time mode, when thresholds are hit, an alert is
shown to the operator. For root cause analysis, historical data can be replayed to understand what
was happening at the time of failure.

NO.8 Which command lists all the service-related information for the specified service? (crmdb is
the cluster database name and crms is the service name)
A. #crsctl config services -d cmdb -s crms
B. #srvctlconfig service -d cmdb -s crms
C. #srvctl getenv service -d crmdb -s crms
D. #crsctl status service -d crm -s crm -v
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1z0-593   1z0-593   1z0-593 examen   1z0-593
Explanation:
*The srvctl config command displays the Oracle Restart configuration of the specified component or
set of components.
*srvctl config service For the specified database, displays the Oracle Restart configuration
information for the specified database service or for all database services
Incorrect: Not C: getenv
Gets and displays environment variables and their values from the Oracle Restart configuration for a
database, listener, or Oracle ASM instance.
srvctl getenv Summary
CommandDescription
*srvctl getenv asm Displays the configured environment variables for the Oracle ASM instance
*srvctl getenv database Displays the configured environment variables for the specified database
instance
*srvctl getenv listener Displays the configuredenvironment variables for the specified listener
Reference:SRVCTL Command Reference for Oracle Restart

NO.9 Select two Clusterware administration tasks that must be performed as the root user.
A. List the location of the voting disks.
B. Check the health and viability of the Clusterware on all nodes.
C. Disable the Clusterware from automatic start at node reboot.
D. Start the Clusterware manually on one node.
E. Check the health of the Clusterware on one node.
Answer: A,D

Oracle   1z0-593   certification 1z0-593   certification 1z0-593
Explanation:
A:Voting disk management requires a valid and working OCR. Before you add, delete, replace, or
restore voting disks, run the ocrcheck command as root.
D: Example:
Restart the Oracle Clusterware stack in normal mode as root:
# crsctl start crs

NO.10 Choose two options that are not suitable for shared storage in a RAC 11g Release 2 database
created using DBCA.
A. Block device
B. Raw device
C. ASM
D. CFS
Answer: A,B

certification Oracle   1z0-593   1z0-593   1z0-593 examen   1z0-593
Explanation:
Before you use DBCA to convert a single-instance database to an Oracle RAC or an
Oracle RAC One Node database, ensure that your system meets the following conditions:
/ It is a supported hardware and operating system software configuration.
/ It has shared storage: either Oracle Cluster File System (CFS) (not D) or Oracle ASM (not C) is
available and accessible from all nodes. On Linux on POWER systems, ensure that GPFS is
available and accessible from all nodes.
/ Your applications have no design characteristics that preclude their use with cluster database
processing.
Note:
*DBCA (Database Configuration Assistant) is a utility used for creating, configuring and removing
Oracle Databases.
Reference:Creating Oracle Real Application Clusters Databases with Database Configuration
Assistant
Reference:Converting to Oracle RAC and Oracle RAC One Node with DBCA

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-466
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
closure of a project or phase?
A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-466   1Z1-466

NO.2 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466
Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.3 According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the definition of a project?
A. A sequence of tasks with a beginning and an end, bound by time, responses, and desired results
B. Anything for which there is an executed contact
C. A sequence of tasks for there is a Statement work
D. A sequence of tasks with a specified end date
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-466   1Z1-466 examen

NO.4 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z1-466 examen   certification 1Z1-466   1Z1-466

NO.5 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   certification 1Z1-466   1Z1-466

NO.6 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

Oracle   1Z1-466   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466   1Z1-466
Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

NO.7 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466

NO.8 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z1-466   1Z1-466   1Z1-466   certification 1Z1-466
Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.9 Tasks in the Project Execution and Control phase are ongoing. How often they are executed?
A. In each iteration
B. Three times
C. Five times
D. At the beginning of each week
E. As needed
Answer: A

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