2014年3月31日星期一

Symantec 251-312, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 251-312
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Admin of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers)
Questions et réponses: 246 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers agent/option provides Microsoft Virtual Server
support?
A. Shadow Copy
B. Virtual Machine
C. System State
D. Remote Agent
Answer: D

Symantec   251-312   251-312

NO.2 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

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NO.3 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change
the user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

Symantec   251-312 examen   251-312

NO.5 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

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NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90
days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor's System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE

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NO.8 An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A

Symantec   251-312   251-312 examen

NO.9 A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails
within 20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time
Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B

Symantec   251-312   251-312

NO.10 Using the silent mode method, how can a backup administrator push-install Backup Exec Remote
Agent for Windows Systems simultaneously to multiple machines?
A. create a command file that reads a number from a .txt file
B. create a command file that reads remote computer names from a .txt file
C. use the Push Install Wizard to add the number of simultaneous installs
D. use the Push Install Wizard to add the parameters for the silent installation
Answer: B

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NO.11 A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

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NO.12 A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position
under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

Symantec   251-312   251-312   251-312

NO.13 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server agents/options support remote installation
from an existing media server? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory Recovery Agent
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Library Expansion Option
E. Shared Storage Option
Answer: BC

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers option is required to manage all backups from the
data center?
A. Shared Storage Option
B. Active Directory Recovery Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Executive Desktop Option
Answer: A

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NO.15 A web-based retailer's mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in
which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B

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NO.16 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005
from the F:\CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
From box; enter today's date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank;
select Include for Type
C. enter F:\*.* for the Path; enter \CEO\*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
the From box; enter today's date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter \* for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From
box; enter today's date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which account enables Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers to access resources for
backup?
A. administrative
B. logon
C. service
D. domain
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE

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NO.19 Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
Answer: AD

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NO.20 A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company's SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company's SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB

Symantec   251-312   251-312   251-312   251-312

NO.22 Which database application is included with Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers?
A. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Desktop Edition 2000
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which technology provides the most efficient Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
A. Remote Administration Option
B. Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec System Recovery
D. Continuous Protection Server
Answer: D

Symantec   251-312   251-312   251-312 examen

NO.24 A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be
restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C

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NO.25 What are two benefits of enabling Database Maintenance in Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows
Servers? (Choose two.)
A. deletes aged reports
B. exports the database to XML
C. removes alert history
D. decreases the size of the database
E. opens the database for sharing
Answer: CD

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NO.26 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

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NO.28 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

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NO.29 Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-058
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the smallest unit of storage in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. subdisk
B. plex
C. volume
D. partition
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which command can you use to set the read policy on a plex in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. vxvol
B. vxplex
C. vxassist
D. vxedit
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that is directly accessed by a
filesystem?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. subvolume
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is one difference between a basic disk and a dynamic disk?
A. private region
B. application data
C. volume
D. resides on a single plex
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which advantage is provided by the Write-order Fidelity feature of Veritas Volume Replicator in Veritas
Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. consistent secondary volumes
B. fast resynchronization of mirrored secondary volumes
C. RAID 5 logging on secondary volumes
D. fast updates to secondary volumes
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which advantage does the VxCache feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. improved performance of dynamic volumes
B. hardware-independent, up-to-date remote copies of data
C. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
D. fast recovery of disk group configurations
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that holds a single complete
copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. subdisk
D. LUN
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which three advantages does the Veritas Volume Replicator feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1
for Windows provide? (Select three.)
A. hardware-independent copies of data that are consistent
B. dynamic bandwidth throttling
C. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
D. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
E. replication over multiple TCP connections
Answer: ABE

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NO.9 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that is a structured collection of
subdisks that represents one copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. dynamic disk
D. dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows (SFW) component that represents the
available space that SFW can use to assign to volumes?
A. public region
B. private region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a best practice when installing Dymanic Multi-pathing for Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. have a single physical path to storage
B. turn off the hardware cache on external storage
C. have all physical paths to storage enabled
D. physically remove all the HBAs from the server
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout where data is arranged both
sequentially and contiguously within a single plex?
A. concatenation
B. striping
C. mirroring
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which advantage is provided by the SmartMove feature in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. reduction of mirror synchronization time
B. rebuilding of redundancy in the case of a disk failure
C. automatic failover in the case of a path failure
D. consistent secondary volumes using Veritas Volume Replicator
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which action in the Veritas Enterprise Administrator console should you use to move a set of subdisks
from one dynamic disk group to a new dynamic disk group?
A. Split Dynamic Disk Group
B. Remove Disks from Dynamic Disk Group
C. Move Dynamic Disk Group Objects
D. Join Dynamic Disk Group
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which advantage does the FlashSnap feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. hardware-independent, point-in-time copies of data
B. hardware-independent, synchronous remote copies of data
C. fast recovery of disk group configuration
D. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout that achieves redundancy by
striping data with parity across multiple disks?
A. RAID 5
B. striped mirroring
C. concatenation
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that contains plex objects?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. ability to grow volumes online
C. control of volumes across heterogeneous systems
D. fast resynchronization of mirrored volumes after a system crash
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which advantage does the hot relocation feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows
provide?
A. rebuilding of redundancy when there is a disk failure
B. automatic synchronization of replicated data
C. fast synchronization of RAID 5 volumes after a system crash
D. optimized synchronization of stale volume data
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that stores information about
virtual objects?
A. private region
B. public region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-075
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 What does a data loss prevention solution help an organization identify? (Select three.)
A.employee education opportunities
B.risk of virus infection
C.unprotected content on laptops
D.illegally obtained software on desktops
E.encryption enforcement opportunities
ANSWER: ACE

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NO.2 Why do companies deploy data loss prevention solutions? (Select two.)
A.to protect their perimeters from external threats
B.to help protect their brands and reputations
C.to prevent employee access to undesirable websites
D.to encrypt sensitive data to ensure secure transmission
E.to reduce the likelihood of data breaches and related costs
ANSWER: BE

Symantec   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075

NO.3 What are three benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide that other security technologies or
tools do not? (Select three.)
A.give visibility into where sensitive data is stored
B.give insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identify who has access to sensitive data
D.indicate where sensitive data is being sent
E.measure encryption strength for sensitive data
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.4 Which three are examples of confidential data? (Select three.)
A.national ID numbers
B.published press releases
C.health information
D.CAD drawings
E.manufacturing plant locations
ANSWER: ACD

Symantec   certification ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.5 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.provides a GUI for policy creation
B.detects incidents
C.writes incidents to all detection servers
D.deploys agents to endpoint computers
ANSWER: A

Symantec examen   ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.6 Which three describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select three.)
A.DLP is a company-wide initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by Information Security.
C.DLP is primarily driven by the Incident Response Team.
D.Employee participation is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
ANSWER: ADE

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NO.7 What must a system administrator do for Network Monitor filter configuration changes to take effect?
A.recycle VontuManager and VontuMonitorController services on Enforce
B.recycle PacketCapture process on the Network Monitor
C.recycle VontuNotifier service to propagate changes to Network Monitor
D.recycle Network Monitor server from the Server Detail page
ANSWER: D

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NO.8 Which component of Microsoft Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) files does Network Discover apply filters
to?
A.individual emails in the .pst file
B.the entire .pst file
C.attachments in the .pst file
D.folders in the .pst file
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a public share with a Marker File
explaining why the document was removed?
A.Network Prevent
B.Network Protect
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
ANSWER: AE

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.11 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the Discover Targets
page?
A.Policy
B.Reports
C.Administration
D.Data at Rest
ANSWER: A

Symantec   certification ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.12 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Network Monitor
C.Network Prevent
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: D

Symantec   ST0-075 examen   certification ST0-075

NO.13 Which database does Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 support for incident and policy storage?
A.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.4
B.any version of Oracle 10g
C.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.1
D.Microsoft SQL Server
ANSWER: A

Symantec   ST0-075   certification ST0-075

NO.14 Which three statements apply to communication between the Enforce Server and detection servers?
(Select three.)
A.By default, the Enforce Server and the detection servers communicate over port 8100.
B.Port 3389 must be open between the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
C.The same port number must be used for all detection servers.
D.The servers can be configured to use any port higher than 1024.
E.IPSec must be configured on the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
ANSWER: ACD

Symantec examen   ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.15 A policy manager wants to apply policies only to certain employees with a specific classification level.
Which TrueMatch detection method can help accomplish this?
A.Directory Group Matching (DGM)
B.Exact Data Matching (EDM)
C.Described Content Matching (DCM)
D.Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
ANSWER: A

Symantec   certification ST0-075   ST0-075 examen   certification ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.16 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
ANSWER: A

Symantec   certification ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.17 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the System Events
report?
A.Reports
B.Policy
C.System Health
D.Administration
ANSWER: D

Symantec examen   certification ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075

NO.18 Which three are valid Scanned Content filter types for the Discover File System target? (Select three.)
A.Exclude filter
B.File Size filter
C.Read ACL filter
D.File Owner filter
E.File Date filter
ANSWER: ABE

Symantec examen   ST0-075   certification ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.19 What is a three-tier Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 deployment?
A.two Enforce Servers deployed on the same host as the database
B.three different detection servers deployed on separate hosts
C.Enforce Server and a detection server deployed on the same host as the database
D.Enforce Server, detection servers, and the database deployed on separate hosts
ANSWER: D

Symantec examen   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.20 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Dashboard report
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.System Events report
ANSWER: B

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 185 Q&As

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NO.1 An end user requires delivery of a new application in a Software \'lrtualization Solutions (SVS) layer
and the administrator is unavailable. Which delivery method should the end user utilize?
A. Quick Delivery
B. Software Portal
C. Managed Delivery
D. Package Delivery
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two relationships within me Software Catalog entry impact a Managed Software Delivery policy?
(Select two.)
A. supersedes
B. inherits
C. updates
D. requires
E. modifies
Answer: A,C

Symantec examen   250-400   250-400

NO.3 A user has an application installed in a Software Virtualization Solution (SVS) layer Alter being used
for several days. the application becomes unstable What should the user do with the SVS layer to
stabilize the application?
A. deactivate and activate me SVS layer
B. resetth SVS layer
C. delete me layer and reinstall me application
D. uninstall the application fromAdthRemove Programs
Answer: B

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NO.4 When creating a Managed Software Delivery policy, a compliance check is scheduled. The
compliance check is based on which component?
A. the detection rule within the Software Catalog
B. Add/Remove Programs within Windows
C. me Software Inventory Report data for the remote system
D. me file information within the Software Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which type of PC Transplant file determines the application settings captured using FC Transplant?
A. POT
B. A21
C. .INI
D. XML
Answer: B

Symantec   250-400   250-400   250-400 examen

NO.6 An administrator wants to upgrade a users computer from Windows XP to Windows Vista.
incorporating PC Transplant The administrator needs to limit the amount of data to be copied across the
network clung this process Which switch setting type allows me administrator to accomplish this?
A. file preservation switches
B. cloning switches
C. image file switches
D. file system switches
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-400   certification 250-400   250-400 examen

NO.7 Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a benefit of Wise SetupCapture?
A. prevents the installation ofmaiware on managed computers
B. detects the installation ofmaiware on managed computers
C. simplifies custom application installations
D. simplifies modification of application installers
Answer: C

Symantec   250-400   250-400 examen

NO.9 What are two valid reasons for implementing a Managed Software Oelwery policy rather man a Quick
Delivery task'? (Select two.)
A. Software installation state enforcement Is required.
B. Software relationships are required.
C. Immediate softwaredelwery is required.
D. Distinguishing between physical and virtual software is required.
E. Online software update checking Is required
Answer: A,B

certification Symantec   certification 250-400   250-400 examen

NO.10 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 component allows an administrator to track computer
resources before an AltEfls Agent is installed?
A. Patch Management
B. Application Discovery
C. Handheld Management
D. Network Discovery
Answer: C

Symantec   250-400   250-400

NO.11 Which type of tile must me Deployment Console user select *tiile creating a PC Transplant task to
capture a computers personality?
A. .pbt
B. .xml
C. .zip
D. .exe
Answer: A

Symantec   250-400   250-400

NO.12 An administrator is attempting to roil out a new security application on au systems in their environment
Mari users are uninstalling me application once they detect it on their systems. The administrator would
like to enforce the application by reinstalling It whenever it is uninstalled by end users. What delivery
method should the administrator use to accomplish this goal?
A. Quick Delivery
B. Software Portal
C. Managed Delivery
D. Application Management
Answer: C

Symantec   250-400 examen   250-400   250-400   certification 250-400

NO.13 Which solution is included with Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0?
A. Help Desk
B. backup Exec
C. pcAnyi4iere
D. Carbon Copy
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-400 examen   250-400   250-400

NO.14 Which two solutions enable an administrator to back up a workstation and then install an application on
mat same wor5tatiOn (Select two)
A. Real-Time System Manager
B. Software Management Solution
C. Recovery Solution
D. Inventory Solution
E. Wise Package Studio Pro
Answer: B,C

Symantec   250-400   certification 250-400   certification 250-400   certification 250-400

NO.15 An administrator has been tasked to upgrade an application on 6.000 computers. The application must
be available in exactly 30 days The 6.000 computers will continue using the current application until then.
Which method will cause the least impact on me network on the date the application needs to be available
A. import a Software Virtualization Solution layer on the computers now and activate the layer in 30 days
B. import and activate a SoftwareWtualizatlon Solution layer on the computers and schedule it To run in
30 clays
C. distribute me application and schedule it to runWi 30 days
D. distribute the application in increments of 200 computers starting tomorrow
Answer: A

Symantec   250-400   250-400

NO.16 Which two products are included In Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: C,E

Symantec examen   250-400   250-400   250-400

NO.17 An administrator wants to install an operating system, boot-critical drrvers, and a particular piece of
software on a new machine. Which solution allows me administrator to accomplish this?
A. Deployment Solution 6.9
B. Deployment Solution 70
C. Software Management Solution
D. PC Transplant
Answer: A

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NO.18 An administrator is installing two applications Into the Virtualization Solutions (SVS) layer Application 1
installs on sever1, server2, and server3, Appllcation2 Installs on server1, and server4 How many
Managed Delivery policies are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

Symantec   250-400   250-400   250-400   250-400

NO.19 What does me Application Management Component of Inventory Solution enable an administrator to
accomplish?
A. identil'y application usage on a particular computer
B. manage applications from either a white list or a black list
C. compare changes in files and the registry between two computers
D. back up registry keys from two different computers
Answer: C

Symantec examen   250-400   250-400   certification 250-400   250-400

NO.20 An administrator wants to create a transform tile for an obscure .msi and then identity machines that
require the software. Which two components should me administrator use to accomplish this task?
(Select two.)
A. Deployment Solution
B. Wise Package Studio Pro
C. Application Management
D. Real-Time System Manager
E. Inventory Solution
Answer: B,E

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Code d'Examen: 250-510
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 - BETA)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 How is the incident count for a new system managed in order to avoid overwhelming the incident
response team?
A.Match count thresholds are set.
B.More than one policy is enabled.
C.Many incident responders are allowed access to the system.
D.Incidents are auto-filtered to hide false positives.
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-510   certification 250-510   250-510

NO.2 What are two examples of confidential data? (Select two.)
A.manufacturing plant locations
B.published press releases
C.stock performance history
D.CAD drawings
E.employee health information
Answer: DE

Symantec   certification 250-510   250-510   certification 250-510

NO.3 Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A.date fields
B.numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C.column names in the first row
D.country, state, or province names
Answer: C

Symantec examen   250-510 examen   250-510 examen

NO.4 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Endpoint Prevent
D.Network Discover
Answer: D

Symantec examen   250-510 examen   250-510

NO.5 Which file on the endpoint machine stores messages that are temporarily cached when using two-tier
policies such as IDM or EDM?
A.is.ead
B.ttds.ead
C.ks.ead
D.cg.ead
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide? (Select two.)
A.provides accurate measurement of encrypted outgoing email
B.gives insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identifies who has access to sensitive data
D.indicates where sensitive data is being sent
E.measures encryption strength for sensitive data
Answer: CD

Symantec   250-510 examen   250-510

NO.7 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A.manually quarantine files
B.automatically quarantine files on file shares
C.modify a response within a policy
D.automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E.apply digital rights to content
Answer: AE

Symantec   250-510   250-510   250-510 examen

NO.8 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
Answer: AE

Symantec   certification 250-510   250-510   certification 250-510   certification 250-510

NO.9 What must be running on a Linux Enforce server to enable the Symantec Data Loss Prevention user
interface?
A.selinux
B.iptables
C.xwindows
D.ssh
Answer: B

Symantec   250-510 examen   250-510   certification 250-510   250-510 examen

NO.10 Which plug-in can connect to Microsoft Active Directory (AD)?
A.CSV Lookup
B.Live LDAP Lookup
C.Active Directory Integration Lookup
D.Directory Server Lookup
Answer: B

certification Symantec   250-510 examen   certification 250-510

NO.11 Which detection server setting enables detecting text within markup language tags?
A.ContentExtraction.MarkupAsText
B.ContentExtraction.EnableMetaData
C.Detection.EncodingGuessingEnabled
D.Lexer.Validate
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-510   250-510   250-510

NO.12 Which two statements describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select two.)
A.DLP is best implemented as a departmental initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by the network team.
C.An incident response team is rarely required.
D.Employee education is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
Answer: DE

certification Symantec   250-510 examen   250-510

NO.13 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

Symantec   250-510   250-510   250-510   250-510 examen

NO.14 Which response rule action will be ignored when using an Exact Data Matching (EDM) policy?
A.Endpoint: Notify
B.Network: Block HTTP/HTTPS
C.Protect: Quarantine File
D.Network: Remove HTTP/HTTPS Content
Answer: A

Symantec   certification 250-510   250-510   250-510

NO.15 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.policy creation
B.detection of incidents
C.inspection of network communication
D.identification of confidential data in repositories
Answer: A

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NO.16 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Incident Dashboard
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

Symantec   250-510 examen   250-510   250-510 examen

NO.17 Which two recommendations should an organization follow when deploying Endpoint Prevent? (Select
two.)
A.test the agent on a variety of end-user images
B.initially enable monitoring of the local file system
C.enable monitoring of many destinations and protocols simultaneously
D.configure, test, and tune filters
E.configure blocking as soon as the agents are deployed
Answer: AD

certification Symantec   250-510   250-510   250-510 examen

NO.18 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A.Network Discover
B.Network Protect
C.Endpoint Prevent
D.Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

Symantec examen   certification 250-510   250-510   250-510 examen

NO.19 What are two valid reasons for adding notes to incidents? (Select two.)
A.to provide incident detail to policy violators
B.to allow the next responder to more quickly prioritize incidents for review
C.to allow the next responder to more quickly understand the incident history
D.to provide detail when closing an incident
E.to provide incident detail for report filtering
Answer: CD

certification Symantec   250-510   certification 250-510   250-510 examen

NO.20 Which two products can be run on virtual servers? (Select two.)
A.Endpoint Discover
B.Endpoint Prevent
C.Network Monitor
D.Enforce
E.Network Prevent
Answer: DE

Symantec   250-510   250-510

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 2010(STS))
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 What is stored directly in the Symantec Backup Exec Database (BEDB)?
A.alerts
B.job logs
C.license information
D.role-based security credentials
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-096   certification ST0-096

NO.2 What is supported by Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.Windows NT 4.0
B.Lotus Domino
C.Tivoli Storage Manager
D.Microsoft Data Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which type of backup is used for an online database and other files that are open and in use by other
applications?
A.snapshot
B.flat
C.active
D.hot
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the trial period for Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.7 days
B.30 days
C.60 days
D.120 days
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two database versions can be used to store the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 Database
(BEDB)? (Select two.)
A.Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Engine 2000 SP3a
B.Microsoft SQL Express 2005 SP3
C.Microsoft SQL 2000 SP3a
D.Microsoft SQL 2008
E.Microsoft SQL 2005 SP2
Answer: BD

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NO.6 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 2010 installation?
A.Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B.media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C.Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D.media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2010 option allows backup of a NetApp filer?
A.Advanced Disk-Based Backup Option
B.NDMP Option
C.NAS Option
D.Remote Agent for NDMP devices
Answer: B

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NO.8 How can an administrator install the Backup Exec Database (BEDB) when installing Symantec Backup
Exec 2010 on a Windows 2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A.locally, using Microsoft SQL Express
B.remotely, using Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C.remotely, using MySQL
D.locally, using Microsoft SQL 2005 in read-only mode
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2010 utility automatically scans a computer targeted for installation and
reports on system requirements?
A.Backup Exec Installation Check
B.Backup Exec Diagnostic Check
C.Backup Exec Environment Check
D.Backup Exec Prerequisite Check
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which job can Symantec Backup Exec 2010 be configured to run when certain Symantec ThreatCon
levels are reached?
A.virus scan
B.backup
C.duplicate backup
D.restore
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 2010 Agents can use Granular Recovery Technology? (Select two.)
A.Active Directory Recovery Agent
B.Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C.Agent for Lotus Domino
D.Agent for Oracle on Windows or Linux Servers
E.Agent for Enterprise Vault
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Which added functionality becomes available when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM),
Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP), and Symantec Backup Exec 2010 (BE) are installed on the same
computer?
A.BE jobs can invoke a virus scan without using a script.
B.BE will display information from SEPM.
C.SEPM can initiate BE restore jobs.
D.SEP will quarantine virus-infected files and initiate a backup.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two functions does the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server perform? (Select two.)
A.controls and manages backup and restore operations
B.controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C.controls role-based security
D.attaches to and controls storage device hardware
E.creates image-based system backups
Answer: AD

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NO.14 If LiveUpdate fails to install a patch, which file contains information to troubleshoot this issue?
A.Bkupinst.log
B.Bkupinst.htm
C.Liveupdate.htm
D.Liveupdate.log
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two rights does Symantec Backup Exec 2010 assign to the Backup Exec Service Account
during installation? (Select two.)
A.Log on as a service
B.Log on as administrator
C.Create a token object
D.Create a token administrator
E.Manage operator rights
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Which two options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 2010? (Select two.)
A.Symantec Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B.Symantec Backup Exec Deduplication Option
C.Symantec Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D.Symantec Backup Exec Granular Recovery Option
E.Symantec Backup Exec Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
Answer: BE

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NO.17 Which versions of Symantec Backup Exec is supported for direct upgrade to Symantec Backup Exec
2010?
A.version 8.x and later
B.version 9.x and later
C.version 10.x and later
D.version 11.x and later
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are two supported processor types for installing and running a Symantec Backup Exec 2010
media server? (Select two.)
A.AMD
B.Itanium
C.RISC
D.Xeon
E.SPARC
Answer: AD

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NO.19 What does Symantec Backup Exec 2010 use to track contents of media?
A.catalogs
B.job logs
C.media headers
D.media sets
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which option is included with a server license in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A.Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
B.Advanced Disk-based Backup Option (ADBO)
C.Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
D.Granular Recovery Technology Option (GRT)
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-086
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010(STS))
Questions et réponses: 127 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the first required step tor managing computers from Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 Management Solution?
A. create resource targets
B. define backup policies
C. install the Alans Agent
D. discover computers on the network
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which tool is used in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 to control permissions?
A. Permission Configuration tool
B. Rote-Dased Administration tool
C. Security Configuration tool
D. User Access Control tool
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which functionality found in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Windows Edition is also
available in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. converting an image file to a virtual hard disk
B. creating a backup every month on a specified day
C. managing backups using a local graphical console
D. restoring an entire computer to the same hardware
Answer: D

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NO.4 Using the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Management Solution, an administrator can
define which two types or backup policies? (Select two)
A. Backup Point Set
B. File and Folder Policy
C. Recovery Point Set
D. Independent Backup Point
E. Independent Recovery Point
Answer: C, E

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NO.5 Which configuration feature of Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 allows the recovery of
a remote machine by removing the requirement for external boot media?
A. Restore Anyware
B. LightsOut Restore
C. Cold Image Restore
D. Symantec pcAnywhere
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two options must be installed to migrate managed client computers from Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery Manager 85 (BESR) to Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. BESR plug-in
C. Symantec Installation Manager
D. Symantec ThreatCon
E. BESR Management Console
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 Which type of backup task for Linux is supported oy Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. offsite copy
B. recovery point set
C. file and folder backup
D. independent recovery point
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which option must be installed prior to installing Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Symantec Installation Manager
C. Symantec Backup Exec Infrastructure Manager
D. Symantec LiveUpdate
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator needs to configure the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Event log
logging level for only the most critical problems.
Which two steps are required to accomplish this? (Select two).
A. set the type of messages to High Priority Messages
B. set the type of messages to All Messages
C. set the type of messages to Medium and High Priority Messages
D. check the Errors check Dox
E. check the Errors and warnings check Dox
F. check me Errors, warnings, and informational check Dox
Answer: A, D

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NO.10 When installing the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Agent on Windows Server 2008,
which two services are automatically installed on the host computer? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Alert service
B. Symantec SymSnap VSS Provider service
C. Symantec pcAnywhere Host service
D. SymSnapService service
E. Symantec FiashSnap service
Answer: B, D

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NO.11 Which two options are available to configure FTP offsite copy? (Select two)
A. Failover to alternate site
B. secure FTP
C. Limit connection attempts to
D. Connection mode
E. Limit number of copies
Answer: C, D

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NO.12 An administrator needs to create a new destination for the backup of a server with Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Management Solution.
Which server requires access to the location?
A. the client server
B. the BESR Management Solution database server
C. the BESR Management Solution server
D. the UveUpdate server
Answer: A

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NO.13 An administrator has an internal drive that is only used for temporary storage. Which option must De
configured to disable status reporting for this drive?
A. Error Only status reporting
B. Configure status reporting
C. No status reporting
D. Full status reporting
Answer: C

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NO.14 Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) Is installed on a windows Server 2003 it Is then
used to deploy agents to five remote computers running windows Server 2003. and nve computers
running windows 7 Enterprise.
Regardless of the edition. how many total BESR licenses are required to license all machines in the
environment?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
E. 11
Answer: E

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NO.15 Which two options will activate the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 (BESR) evaluation
period? (Select two.)
A. beginning the BESR installation program
B. running a dnve-based or file and folder backup
C. booting a system from the System Recovery Disk (SRD)
D. defining a drive-based or file and folder backup
E. completing the BESR Installation program
Answer: B, D

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NO.16 Which backup method is available with Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. independent recovery point backup
B. recovery point set backup
C. incremental backup
D. file and folder backup
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is me minimum memory that LightsOut Restore requires to run?
A. 512MB
B. 768 MB
C. 1 GB
D. 2 GB
Answer: C

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NO.18 A computer is currently managed by Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery Manager 8.5. The
administrator needs to manage that computer using Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution.
Which component will be removed during migration?
A. Altihs plug-in
B. Altihs Agent
C. Management Console
D. Management Control
Answer: D

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NO.19 In an organization, users are commonly working on their computers while Backups are occurring.
To improve application performance for users, how is Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
tuned tor user performance to take priority over backups?
A. adjust Default Performance
B. suspend backups while the system is active
C. change Connection Mode
D. enable the Computer Responsiveness setting
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the minimum amount of memory required to run Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 for Linux17
A. 256 MB
B. 384 MB
C. 512MB
D. 1 GB
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ASC-029
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC Enterprise Security 2010)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A. likelihood of occurrence
B. order of occurrence
C. level of inconvenience to the customer
D. impact to the project
E. visibility to senior management
Answer: A, D

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NO.2 When defining location switching criteria, which two can be used? (Select two.)
A. MAC address
B. Wins Server address
C. host name
D. NIC description
E. OS type
Answer: B, D

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NO.3 With an 802.lx enabled switch, the SNAC client communicates with the switch at which layer of the OSI
reference model for EAP authentication?
A. Layer 1 (Physical Layer)
B. Layer 2 (Data Link Layer)
C. Layer 3 (Network Layer)
D. Layer 4 (Transport Layer)
Answer: B

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NO.4 At an administrator ¯ s fir s t m ee ti ng w it h a cus t o m e r t hey r ea li ze t ha t t he ir cus t o m e r i s expec ti ng t he
product to do a certain function that the administrator is sure it cannot accomplish. What should the
administrator ¯ s r esponse be?
A. call the account team
B. escalate to the administrator ¯ s m anage r
C. provide alternative solutions
D. call the product manager
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator has deployed LAN enforcer within the network and enabled 802.lx on all switch ports.
How can the administrator ensure that printers directly connected to the switch are still accessible, and
also prevent computers bypassing LAN enforcement should they be connected to the printer ¯ s ne t w o r k
outlet?
A. install Symantec Endpoint Protection on the printers
B. add the MAC addresses of the printers to the Trusted Hosts list in the advanced settings of the
Enforcer Group properties
C. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mab enable
D. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mac and the list of printer MAC
addresses
Answer: C

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