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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-518
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 Receivables Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 101 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three statements are true about accounting rules? (Choose three.)
A. Accounting rules enable you to defer revenue.
B. Accounting rules enable you to define fixed and variable rules to recognize revenue.
C. Accounting rules enable you to define the number of periods and percentage of total revenue that you
can record in each accounting period.
D. Accounting rules enable you to define the number of periods and amount of invoice that you can bill
your customer in each accounting period.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.2 Which four transactions are improved by Autolvoice? (Choose four.)
A. Invoices
B. Deposits
C. Guarantees
D. Debit memos
E. Credit memos
F. On-account credits
Answer: A, D, E, F

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NO.3 Your client is Implementing Oracle Financials and Order Management. The AR team lead has heard
about the Tax Reporting Ledger and wants to know which subledger modules are used by the report.
Identify three applications that can be reported by the Tax Reporting Ledger.
A. Treasury
B. Payables
C. Purchasing
D. Receivables
E. General Ledger
F. Cash Management
G. Order Management
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.4 Identify the Receivables activity type where you are unable to select the tax rate code source option of
invoice.
A. Adjustment
B. Earned discount
C. Unearned discount
D. Miscellaneous cash
Answer: D

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NO.5 In order for supplementary data sources to be registered in Oracle Bill Presentment Architecture (BPA).
They must be interfaced with which Oracle Application?
A. Oracle Projects
B. Oracle Receivables
C. Oracle Service Contract
D. Oracle Order Management
Answer: B

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NO.6 ABC Corp. Has the following Organization Structure:
1. Legal Entity: A
2. Operating Units: B and C
3) Balancing Entities: 10, 20, and 30
Identify three correct statements regarding the Balancing Entity. (Choose three.)
A. Each Balancing Entity must balance within itself.
B. There can be multiple Balancing Entities within an Operating Unit.
C. Balancing Entity is the lowest postable unit in the Chart of Accounts.
D. Balancing Entities can be secured at the Operating Unit level through Security Rules.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.7 Several fields are required during manual Invoice entry. Which are the the field required at the header
level?
A. date, customer, source, type, GL, date, legal, entity
B. date, legal entity, bill-to, source, type, class, remit-to
C. terms, date, bill-to, source, legal entity, type, remit-to
D. date, customer, source, type, General Ledger (GL) data, class
E. date, source, class, type, GL date, legal entity, bill-to, terms, remit-to
Answer: E

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NO.8 In the Multi-Org model of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12, which organization type owns Bank
Account?
A. Ledger
B. Legal Entity
C. Operating Unit
D. Balancing Entity
E. Business Group
Answer: B

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NO.9 Oracle Credit Management (OCM) uses lookups to help speed up data entry and increase accuracy.
Select two required lookups used by OCM. (Choose two.)
A. Rick code
B. Credit rating
C. Payment terms
D. Credit review type
F. Credit classification
Answer: D, E

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NO.10 Identify two options that users can specify using Multi-Org preferences. (Choose two.)
A. set up the default Operating Unit
B. set up frequently accessed responsibilities
C. set up date, currency, and number formats
D. set up frequently accessed forms and webpages
E. set up the access to a limited list of Operating Units
Answer: A, E

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NO.11 Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Answer: C, D

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NO.12 Company ABC implementing Oracle User Management (OUM). It has decided to implement the Self
Service and Approvals access control layer.
What are the three self-service registration tasks an end user can perform? (Choose three.)
A. Reset passwords.
B. Obtain new user accounts.
C. Request deactivation of responsibility.
D. Request reports to be added to request set.
E. Request additional access to the applications.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.13 Which four transaction types or activities are affected by the "AR: Disable Receivable Activity Balancing
Segment" profile option? (Choose four.)
A. Invoices
B. Adjustments
C. Late charges
D. Debit memos
E. Credit memos
F. Discounts (both earned and unearned)
G. Activity applications (such as receipt write-off, short-tern debt, and claims Investigation)
Answer: B, C, F, G

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NO.14 Identify three setups In Oracle Receivables that control how discounts are calculated. (Choose three.)
A. Profile options
B. Payment terms
C. System options
D. Receipt classes
E. Customer profiles
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.15 Indentify three steps to be performed after defining a Flexfield structure, but before entering values.
(Choose three.)
A. Select the "Freeze Flexfield Defintion" check box.
B. Click the Compile button to build the Flexfield structure.
C. Save your changes before freezing the Flexfield definition.
D. Submit a concurrent request to build the Flexfield structure.
E. Do not save your changes before freezing the Flexfield definition.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.16 Organizations have unique credit policies that aid for managing their collections and establishing
relationships with customers. Describe the two dimensions on which Oracle Credit Management is based.
(Choose two.)
A. various customer credit review types identified by collectors
B. various credit review types identified by collectors
C. various analysis of prior billing period and receipt history of customers
D. various analysis of customers on the basis of the aging their outstanding balances
Answer: A, B

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NO.17 There are several setup steps for receipts in Oracle Receivables; some are required whereas others
are optional. Which two setup steps are optional? (Choose two.)
A. Define receipt classes.
B. Define receipt methods.
C. Define receipt sources.
E. Define AntoCash rule sets.
F. Define application rule sets.
Answer: D, E

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NO.18 A receipt of $2,000 Is received for an Invoice that has $1,500 as the amount due. The remittance advice
does not state a reason for the overpayment ldentify the receipt state that should be displayed;
A. Applied
B. Unapplied
C. On-account
D. Unidentified
E. Partially applied
Answer: B

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NO.19 Identify three true statements about defining actions In Oracle Alert. (Choose three.)
A. An alert can contain only one Action Set.
B. An alert can contain any number of Action Sets.
C. When multiple actions are defined they must be Included fn an Action Set.
D. Oracle Alert waits for user response before executing next action fn an Action Set.
E. When multiple actions are defined, they do not need to included in an Action Set.
F. Oracle Alert does not wait for user response before executing nest action In an Action Set.
Answer: B, C, F

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NO.20 Your functional end users are perplexed by the contents of the Antolnvoice Execution report. They
needed expert guidance and cause to you. You look at the report and see that the Interface Lines section
of the report shows the following:
Selected: 9
Successfully Processed: 8
Failed Validation: 0
What is the likely reason for this?
A. An adjustment update of an old Invoice Is Included In this batch.
B. The General Ledger (GL) code combination 10 failed the cross validation rules.
C. A debit memo for an Invoice and the Invioice itself were submitted In the same batch tr\6 the debit
memo is selected first.
D. A credit memo for an Invoice and the invoice Itself are submitted In the same batch and the credit
memo Is selected first.
E. The GL code combination segment value for the cost center was valid in the prior calendar month but is
end-dated a day earlier.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-539
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle GoldenGate 10 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three describe a valid OGG Event Action?
A. Stop the process
B. Write a checkpoint before and/or after writing the record to the trail.
C. Run a shell command
D. Purge old trail files
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which translations are captured if you ADD EXTRACT BEGIN now 1:00 p.m., but START EXTRACT at
2:00 p.m.?
A. Transactions started on or after 1:00 p.m.
B. Transactions started on or after 2:00 p.m.
C. Transactions started before 1:00 p.m and committed after 1:00 p.m.
D. Transactions started before 1:00 p.m and committed after 2:00 p.m.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which Manager Parameter sets will report current lag every hour and write a critical message for any
Extract/Replicate with a lag over 60 minutes?
A. LAGBEPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFO 1 and LAGCRITICAL 60
B. LAGREPORTMINUTES 60, LAGINFOHOURS 1
C. LAGREPOBT 1, I.AGCRITICALHOURS 1
D. LAGREPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFOMINUTES 30, LAGCR JTTCAI-M I
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which argument is used to set the maximum size of the EXTTRAIL or RMTTRAL.
A. MAXSIZE
B. TRAILSIZE
C. HAXTRAILSI2E
D. TRAILMAXSIZE F
E. MEGABYTES
Answer: E

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NO.5 You want to configure replication of CREATE TABLE statements from oracle to Teradata, so that only
new table created in your mapped source schema is Replicated. Which should be the part of solution?
A. This feature is not supported in oracle goldenGate 10.
B. DDL INCLUDE MAPPED in extra parameter file.
C. DDL INCLUDE UNMAPPED in extra parameter file.
D. DDL EXCLUDE MAPPED in extra parameter file.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want encrypt message sent or over TCP/IP to server usserver1, where the goldenGate manage
process is running on port 7809. Your requirements include using a custom encryption key and advanced
encryption standard (AES), and you have created an ENCKEYS file What parameters should you use?
A. This feature is not supported in oracle goldenGate 10.
B. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT 7809, ENCRYPT AES, ENCRYPT KEY
C. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT AES, ENCRYPTKEY MYKWY, MBRPORT 7809
D. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT 7809, ENCRYPT BLOWFISH ENCRYPTKEY MYKEY
Answer: D

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NO.7 CORRECT TEXT
By default, which option is evaluated first, SQLEXEC or filter statement?
A.SQLEXEC
B. FILTER
C.There is no default; it is set with the after filter I before filter.
D. It depends on their position in the parameter file; the first encountered is executed first.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What parameter provides options for compression and encryption?
A. RMTHOST
B. TARGET
C. TCPIP
D. TARGET DB
Answer: A

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NO.9 What GoldenGate process is responsible for capturing changes in the source database?
A. Manager
B. Replicate
C. Extract
D. Server Collector
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statements are true of goldenGate password encryption?
A password can be encrypted and pasted into a parameter file. An encrypted password can be generated
using the default key. An encrypted password can be generated using a user defined-key.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3
E. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-514
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 View the exhibit.
Which actions would be performed and in what sequence by clicking the Startup button?
1) Control file is read.
2) Memory is allocated.
3) Background processes are started.
4) Initialization parameter file is read.

NO.2 The DBA of your database informs you that the Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only the SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only the background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You issue the following command as a DBA: SQL>SHUTDOWN
What would be the outcome of the above command?
A. It causes the instance to abort.
B. It waits for all sessions to disconnect.
C. It rolls back the current transactions and disconnects a/I sessions.
D. It waits for the current transaction in each session to complete before disconnecting the sessions.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two statements are true regarding the usage of tools in administering an Oracle database?
(Choose two.)
A. Oracle Net Manager: configure a new or existing listener
B. Data Pump: transfer of data from one database to another
C. SQL*Loader: load data horn an Oracle database to an external file
D. Database Upgrade Assistant: upgradeonly single-instance databases
E. Database configuration Assistant (DBCA): create new database userin an existing database
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 Redo log files and data files are opened.
A. 2, 3, 1
B. 4, 1, 5
C. 1, 5, 4, 2
D. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
E. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
Answer: D

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5.Which two statements are true regarding consistent backups? (Choose two)
A. Database can be opened immediately after the restore operation.
B. Database can be opened only after the restore and recovery operations.
C. Consistent backups can be taken only when the instance is running and the database is closed.
D. Consistent backups can be taken only when the instance is shut clown and the database is closed.
E. Consistent backup are taken before the changes in the online redo log files haw been applied to the
data files.
Answer: A, D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-531
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Essbase 11 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Moving a stored entity member in a sparse dimension causes_________.
A. a Full restructure
B. an Index restructure
C. an Outline restructure
D. No restructure
Answer: C

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NO.2 Market size is an attribute dimension with the following members: Large, Medium, and Small.
Which of the following options below represent valid syntax statements in a calc script?
A. FIX (@ATTRIBUTE(Large))
B. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, "Market Size");
C. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, Market Size);
D. FIX(Large)
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which two options would provide a better design for the following accounts and metrics.?
A. If there are a small number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and
Metrics into 2 dimensions
B. If there are a large number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and
Metrics into 2 dimensions
C. If reporting dictates FTE and dollars in the columns and accounts in the rows, split Accounts and
Metrics into 2 dimensions
D. If block size is large, then keep Accounts and Metrics as one dimension with a dense dimension
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 You have the following analysis requirement. Products roll up to Product Family which rolls up to
Product Category. You also need to group Products by Product Manager. Product Managers may manage
one or more Products across product families. You do not need to create reports with Product Manager by
Product Family. You need to secure products by Product Manager for planning submissions.
You consider Shared members as a solution because of which two options?
A. Shared members provide cross tab reporting (Product Manager in the rows and Product Familyacross
the column)
B. Shared members provide additional categorization but results in a smaller database then if youwere to
add Product Manager as a separate dimension
C. You can assign security to shared members
D. Shared members can be assigned to sparse members only
Answer: B,C

Oracle   1Z0-531   certification 1Z0-531   1Z0-531   1Z0-531

NO.5 Assuming Sales and Year are sparse and Actual is dense, what two actions will the following calc script
perform?
A. Export the data for actual, current year, sales into a text file called data.txt
B. Export the data for actual, current year into a text file called data.txt
C. Export data blocks in a compressed encrypted format
D. Create a text file that can be imported using the DATAIMPORTBIN calc command in another database
that has different dimensionality
Answer: B,C

certification Oracle   1Z0-531   1Z0-531 examen   1Z0-531 examen

NO.6 Which six files are involved in database recovery for block storage option after a database crash?
A. Essn.pag
data
B. Essn.ind
index
C. Essn.dat
D. Temp.dat
E. Dbname.esm - kernel file that contains control information for db recovery
F. Dbname.tct - transaction control table
G. Dbname.ind - free fragment file for data and index free fragments
H. DBname.otl
I. Metadata folder
Answer: A,B,E,F,G,H

Oracle examen   1Z0-531 examen   1Z0-531 examen   1Z0-531   1Z0-531 examen

NO.7 A calculation script is performed on a database for which Create Block on Equation is OFF. The
command SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON is issued immediately before an equation in the script.
Which statementsaccurately describewhen blocks will be created? (Choose two)
A. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns non-constant values to members of a sparse
dimension
B. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns constant values to members of a sparse
dimension
C. Blocks will be created when the equation assigns either constant or non-constant values to members
of a spare dimension.
D. No blocks will be created.
Answer: B,C

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-531   1Z0-531   1Z0-531   certification 1Z0-531

NO.8 You should back up the following three for ASO.
A. Hyperion_Home \common
B. Essbaseinstallfolder\bin
C. ARBORPATH \app\appname
D. Essbaseinstallfolder \locale
E. Essbase.sec
F. Essbase.cfg
Answer: A,E,F

certification Oracle   1Z0-531   certification 1Z0-531   1Z0-531 examen

NO.9 Identify four disadvantages / considerations when using a transparent partition.
A. Old data
B. Slow retrievals
C. Slow calculations if referencing dynamic calc members in the source
D. Outline sync complexities
E. Increased network load
F. Downtime required to sync data
Answer: B,C,E,F

certification Oracle   1Z0-531   1Z0-531   1Z0-531 examen   1Z0-531 examen   1Z0-531 examen

NO.10 Identify the two true statements about incremental loading.
A. Allows for real time data access for end users.
B. Creates *subscribes* along the main slice in the database.
C. Materialization of slices is required to provide users the correct query results.
D. Different materialized views may exist within a slice as compared to the main slice of the database.
Answer: A,C

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-546
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (StorageTek Tape Libraries Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Partitioning allows the SL3000 library to be divided for use by multiple____________.
A. Power Supplies
B. Storage Cells
C. Hosts
D. Drives
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which SL500 report displays the current map of physical drive slot relationship to its physical address
(iib, module, row) and drive serial number?
A. Library Utilization
B. Drive Utilization
C. Drive Mapping
D. Drive Distribution
Answer: C

certification Oracle   1Z0-546 examen   1Z0-546 examen   1Z0-546

NO.3 Where are the messages written when a pool gets below the low water mark?
A. acsss_event.log
B. pool_error.log
C. hardware_event.log
D. Doesn't write an error message
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z0-546   1Z0-546 examen

NO.4 Using ACSLS, how would you delete a tape pool?
A. Set scr off and delete the pool
B. Remove all data tapes and delete the pool
C. Delete pool 0 and all empty pools will delete automatically
D. Remove all volumes from the pool and then delete it
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-546 examen   1Z0-546 examen   1Z0-546 examen   1Z0-546 examen

NO.5 On the SL8500, which is the best option when combining workloads that span more than one rail?
A. using the middle two rails for active enters and ejects
B. using rails that are adjacent to each other within the same SL8500
C. using the top rail for extra archival space and any other rail for active data
D. using the top rail for active enters and ejects and any other rail for archival space
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-546   1Z0-546   certification 1Z0-546

NO.6 Which four statements are true for an SL8500?
A. Partitioned LSMs will not recognize other LSMs, within the library unless they are in the same partition.
B. The elevator operationisunder the control of the library controller when CAP operations are issued.
C. CAPS can either be shared or dedicated resources for partitions.
D. All drives, storage slots, and cartridges within a partition are solely owned by that host or host group.
E. While duplicate VOLSERs are supported by the library, ACSLS does not support duplicate VOLSRs
unless they are in different partitions and the duplicate VOLSERs are on different ACLs servers.
Answer: B,C,D,E

Oracle   1Z0-546   1Z0-546   1Z0-546   certification 1Z0-546

NO.7 Which connectivity option is available only in an SL8500 library complex?
A. single TCP/IP connectivity
B. dual TCP/IP connectivity
C. multi TCP/IP connectivity

NO.8 Which of the items are reports available from SLC regarding partitioning on an SL500?
A. Cartridge Cell and Media Summary
B. Host Connections Summary
C. Orphaned Cartridge Report
D. Partition Summary
E. Partition Details
F. All of the above
Answer: F

Oracle   1Z0-546 examen   1Z0-546 examen   1Z0-546

NO.9 What ACSLS command would change a cap priority.?
A. set cap priority 5 0, 0, 1
B. define cap priority 5 0,0,1
C. change cap priority 5 0, 0, 1
D. lock cap priority 5 0, 0, 1
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z0-546   1Z0-546   certification 1Z0-546   1Z0-546 examen

NO.10 The System Detail SLC screen displays health indicators for which four devices in an SL3000?
A. Rotational and AFM CAPs
B. Drives
C. Media
D. Power supplies
E. Robot(s)
Answer: A,B,D,E

Oracle   certification 1Z0-546   1Z0-546   1Z0-546

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-850
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Standard Edition 5 and 6, Certified Associate Exam)
Questions et réponses: 242 Q&As

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NO.1 }
Which, inserted at line 8, produces the output 30?
A. static int calc(int n1, int n2) { return; }
B. public int calc(int n1, int n2) { return n1 + n2; }
C. public int calc(int n1, int n2) { return; }
D. static int calc(int n1, int n2) { return n1 + n2; }
E. static void calc(n1, n2) { return (n1 + n2); }
F. static int calc(int n1, n2) { return n1, n2; };
Answer: D

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-850   1Z0-850   1Z0-850   1Z0-850 examen
4.Given:
1. public abstract class Wow {
2. private int wow;
3. public Wow(int wow) {
4. this.wow = wow;
5. }
6. public void wow() { }
7. private void wowza() { }
8. }
Which is true about the class Wow?
A. It does NOT compile because an abstract class must have at least one abstract method.
B. It does NOT compile because an abstract class CANNOT have instance variables.
C. It compiles without error.
D. It does NOT compile because an abstract class CANNOT have private methods.
E. It does NOT compile because an abstract class must have a constructor with no arguments.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-850 examen   1Z0-850   certification 1Z0-850   1Z0-850 examen
5.Given:
1. class X {
2. private Y y;
3. public X(Y y) { this.y = y; }
4. }
5. class Y {
6. private X x;
7. public Y() { }
8. public Y(X x) { this.x = x; }
9. }
The instance variable y is intended to represent the composition relationship "X is composed of Y."
Which code correctly maintains this meaning?
A. X x1 = new X(new Y())
;
X x2 = new X(new Y())
;
B. X xx = new X(null)
;
Y y1 = new Y(xx)
;
Y y2 = new Y(xx)
;
C. Y yy = new Y()
;
X x1 = new X(yy)
;
X x2 = new X(yy)
;
D. Y y1 = new Y(new X(null))
;
Y y2 = new Y(new X(null))
;
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-850   1Z0-850
6.Which type of J2EE component is used to store business data persistently?
A. stateless session beans
B. JavaBeans
C. stateful session beans
D. entity beans
E. JavaServer Pages
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-850   1Z0-850   certification 1Z0-850
7.What is the purpose of JNDI?
A. to access native code from a Java application
B. to parse XML documents
C. to access various directory services using a single interface
D. to register Java Web Start applications with a web server
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-850   1Z0-850   1Z0-850
8.Which two are true about HTML? (Choose two.)
A. HTML can set up hypertext links between documents.
B. HTML uses tags to structure text into headings, paragraphs, and lists.
C. HTML is an object-oriented programming language.
D. HTML documents CANNOT be browsed by a text editor.
Answer: A,B

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9.Given:
4. class Example {
5. int x = 50;
6. int y = 100;
7. public static void main(String args[]) {
8. int x = 0, y = 10;
9. Example ex = new Example();

NO.2 // insert code here

NO.3 Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. J2EE runs on consumer and embedded devices.
B. J2EE includes the MIDP API.
C. J2EE includes servlet APIs and EJB APIs.
D. J2EE application developers need J2SE.
E. J2EE applications depend on web servers.
Answer: C,D

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-850   1Z0-850   certification 1Z0-850   1Z0-850

NO.4 Given:
12. String s = "abcdefgabc";
13. char c = s.charAt(2);
14.
15. if (c == 'c')
16. s = s.replace('c', 'X');

NO.5 Which two are associated with the web tier in a J2EE web-based application.? (Choose two.)
A. servlets
B. JAX-RPC
C. JMS
D. entity beans
E. JSP
Answer: A,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-850   1Z0-850   1Z0-850 examen

NO.6 }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error at line 8.
B. x = 3 , y = 7
C. Compilation fails because of an error at line 11.
D. Compilation fails because of an error at line 9.
E. x = 53 , y = 97
F. Compilation fails because of an error at line 10.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-850   certification 1Z0-850
10.You have developed a MIDlet that runs on a Java-enabled Personal Digital Assistant (PDA) device.
Now, your employer has asked you to port the MIDlet to run on other Java platforms. Which is true?
A. The MIDlet is 100% portable across all J2ME devices.
B. The MIDlet can run within a standard web browser.
C. The MIDlet is guaranteed to run correctly under J2SE.
D. The MIDlet is NOT guaranteed to run on a Java technology-enabled phone.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-850 examen   1Z0-850   1Z0-850 examen   certification 1Z0-850
11.Which statement is true?
A. JMS enables an application to provide flexible, asynchronous data exchange.
B. JMS provides interfaces to naming and directory services.
C. The JMS API is located in the java.jms package.
D. JMS enables an application to provide tightly coupled, distributed communication.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-850 examen   certification 1Z0-850
12.Which two are true about stateless session beans? (Choose two.)
A. They are used to represent data stored in an RDBMS.
B. They implement the JMS API.
C. They are used to implement business logic.
D. They CANNOT hold client state.
Answer: C,D

Oracle   1Z0-850 examen   certification 1Z0-850
13.Which two are true about javax.swing? (Choose two.)
A. It includes classes for creating buttons and panels.
B. It is used to create MIDlets.
C. It is used to create applications that have the same user interface on different platforms.
D. It uses the native GUI components of each platform.
Answer: A,C

Oracle   1Z0-850 examen   1Z0-850   certification 1Z0-850   1Z0-850
14.Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. An interface CANNOT be extended by another interface.
B. An abstract class CANNOT be extended by an abstract class.
C. An interface can be extended by an abstract class.
D. An abstract class can implement an interface.
E. An abstract class can be extended by a concrete class.
F. An abstract class can be extended by an interface.
Answer: D,E

Oracle   1Z0-850 examen   certification 1Z0-850   1Z0-850 examen   certification 1Z0-850
15.Click the Exhibit button.
Which relationships, referenced by the class names involved, are drawn using valid UML notation?
A. AB, AC, BD, and CD
B. only AC, BD, and CD
C. only AB, AC, and BD
D. only AB and AC
E. only BD and CD
Answer: A

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NO.7 x++; y--;

NO.8 while (x < 3) {

NO.9 result = calc(num1, num2);

NO.10 s = s.replace('c', 'O');

NO.11 System.out.println(s);
What is the result?
A. aOcdefgabc
B. Compilation fails.
C. abOdefgabc
D. abXdefgabc
E. abOdefgabO
F. aOcdefgaOc
G. abXdefgabX
Answer: G

certification Oracle   1Z0-850   1Z0-850 examen   certification 1Z0-850   certification 1Z0-850
17.Which package contains classes used to create data collections, such as maps or queues?
A. java.lang
B. java.io
C. java.awt
D. java.net
E. javax.swing
F. java.util
Answer: F

Oracle   1Z0-850   certification 1Z0-850   1Z0-850
18.Given:
1. interface A { }
2. interface B { void b(); }
3. interface C { public void c(); }
4. abstract class D implements A,B,C { }
5. class E extends D {
6. void b() { }
7. public void c() { }
8. }
Which is true?
A. Compilation fails due to an error in line 6.
B. The code compiles without error.
C. Compilation fails due to an error in line 2.
D. Compilation fails due to an error in line 4.
E. Compilation fails due to an error in line 1.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-850   1Z0-850   certification 1Z0-850   1Z0-850
19.What type of relationship is needed to represent the relationship between students and the courses
they are enrolled in at a university?
A. a one-to-one composition
B. a one-to-one association
C. a many-to-many composition
D. a one-to-many composition
E. a one-to-many association
F. a many-to-many association
Answer: F

Oracle   1Z0-850   certification 1Z0-850
20.Which two are features of JNDI? (Choose two.)
A. an interface to store and retrieve named Java objects of any type
B. an interface to search for objects using attributes
C. a defined common set of messaging concepts and programming strategies
D. connectivity to databases and other tabular data sources
Answer: A,B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-850   1Z0-850   1Z0-850

NO.12 }

NO.13 else

NO.14 }

NO.15 Given:
1. class Test {
2. public static void main(String args[]) {
3. int num1 = 10, num2 = 20, result;

NO.16 System.out.println("x = " + x + " , y = " + y);

NO.17

NO.18 }

NO.19 s = s.replace('b', 'O');

NO.20 else if (c == 'b')

NO.21 System.out.println(result);

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-868
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Enterprise Edition 5 Enterprise Architect Certified Master Upgrade Exam)
Questions et réponses: 144 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Java EE feature helps facilitate migration to SOA?
A. Stateful session beans can be exposed as web services.
B. Stateless session beans can be exposed as web services.
C. Stateful session beans support local and remote interfaces.
D. Stateless session beans support local and remote interfaces.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are asked to architect an SOA solution that leverages Java web services. The architecture needs to
be flexible and allow for the SOAP 1.1, SOAP 1.2, and REST implementations. Which Java EE
technology should you use?
A. JAXP
B. JAXB
C. JAX-WS
D. JAX-RPC
Answer: C

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NO.3 A company has a legacy system that it is going to use Java EE technology to re-engineer. The legacy
solution consists of active server pages and a relational database. The company is interested in changing
DB vendors in the future and this requirement is key to moving forward.
This is a web-based transactional sales system. The company will keep the relational database schema
because it still meets business requirements and will not require re-engineering. What is
the best solution?
A. JSP, JDBC only
B. JSP, servlets, JDBC only
C. JSF, servlets, JPA, EJB3
D. JSF, servlets, DAO, JDBC
Answer: C

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NO.4 An existing web application uses JSPs to communicate directly to a database. Small changes to the
database result in business logic changes to many JSPs. The single JSP developer, who was also the
graphic artist, has just quit the project. In addition, the company needs to add a web services-based
interface to the application. You have been hired as the architect to refactor the web application. Which
two changes should you make to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. introduce a separate presentation layer with different views for HTML and XML
B. add an abstraction layer between the database and JSPs to encapsulate business logic
C. develop a DAO layer to encapsulate the database access that can be used by all the JSPs
D. add new JSPs for the XML and use <jsp:include> to incorporate the existing business logic
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 DRAG DROP
Answer:

NO.6 What describes the design relationship between session beans and entity beans?
A. aggregation
B. separation of concerns
C. common reuse principle
D. Liskov substitution principle
E. interface segregation principle
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are architecting an online ordering application with these requirements:
Users access the system over the Internet using HTML.
An email message is sent to the user confirming the order.
Users must log in and are validated using LDAP.
The product catalog is stored in a relational database.
All orders are logged to the internal fulfillment system.
Orders must not be lost.
Which Java EE technology should be used to send orders to the fulfillment system?
A. JNDI
B. JMS
C. JAX-WS
D. RMI-IIOP
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are architecting a complex multi-tiered web application. Within each tier you have designed layers,
the lowest being the hardware layer and the highest being the application layer. Which statement is true?
A. Generally, a given layer in one tier of this application should be concerned with the technology used in
the same layer of adjacent tiers.
B. To maximize separation of concerns, a given layer in a tier of this application should only have
knowledge of the adjacent layer in that tier.
C. For any given tier, separation of concerns is fulfilled when a given layer in that tier knows or needs to
know little or nothing of the layers below it.
D. If the layers in one tier of the application have been designed to achieve separation of
concerns, then the remaining tiers also achieve separation of concerns by default.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are two advantages of using encapsulation in a multi-tier architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Business components inherit behavior from the web container.
B. Complex web container behavior can be hidden behind simple interfaces.
C. Business logic can be modified without modifying objects that depend on it.
D. Database records can be accessed directly from the web tier to improve scalability and
performance.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 What are three web service support features in Java EE? (Choose three.)
A. generating a web service from an MDB
B. generating a Java class from a WSDL file
C. associating a Java class with a WSDL file
D. associating a JMS queue with a WSDL file
E. generating a web service from a stateful session bean
F. generating a web service from a stateless session bean
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.11 A company architected and developed a Java EE application and now they are having problems with
the scalability of the system. The application uses JSPs and servlets deployed to a web container, and
stateless session beans and DAOs deployed to an EJB container. The application's non-functional
requirement for scalability is to support 500 concurrent users during peak hours of operation. The
application can currently support 500 concurrent users, but the response time is 200 percent of what it is
acceptable. You have been hired as an architect and have been assigned to help resolve this problem.
The company's management is concerned with the hardware budgeting. What initial advice would you
give to the company?
A. add another web server
B. start a new project to re-architect the application
C. monitor the application to determine the potential problem areas
D. add more memory and processors to the hardware hosting the EJB container
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are architecting a new Internet-deployed application and you want to restrict access to parts of the
system for security purposes. Which three security restrictions can be specified in the deployment
descriptor according to the servlet API specification standards? (Choose three.)
A. on page forwarding
B. on encryption methods
C. based on the role name
D. based on the user name
E. based on the URL pattern
F. based on the HTTP method
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.13 A Java EE travel agency application builds flight itineraries and needs to provide runtime
monitoring to external clients. Agency managers need to find out at any given time how many itineraries
have been started but not completed. This information should be made available to managers at runtime
using open-source or commercially available management tools. The instrumentation should be done
with a standard Java EE API. How should you instrument the application?
A. JPA
B. JMX
C. JMS
D. SNMP
Answer: B

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NO.14 You work for a small IT shop. The developers are responsible for deploying production
applications. All of the connection and resource parameters are distributed in the Java source code. Your
IT shop has a limited infrastructure so there have been few issues with pushing production applications.
Your IT shop has been purchased and is now reselling Java products to customers. You now have
dedicated development, testing, staging, and production environments. A new requirement states that
these applications must support rapid deployment to each environment. What is the best solution.?
A. refactor the Java application to use JNDI names and resource references
B. identify a build engineer that has the responsibility of modifying the constant class for each deployment
C. set your connection properties in a constants class to consolidate connection and resource parameters
D. identify the environment parameters for connection and resources and make them readily available to
developers
Answer: A

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NO.15 A successful web application is used by over two hundred thousand users. Due to this substantial load,
the database is overburdened and fails frequently. All data, including critical user records and temporary
session data, are stored in the database. Because of resource constraints, a new database system
cannot be installed. Which change will reduce the load on the database?
A. create more entity beans to optimize the interaction with the database
B. refactor the web application to use DAOs to communicate with the database
C. refactor the web application to store temporary session data on the web servers
D. add more web servers to the web tier to distribute the load and reduce the number of
transactions on the database
Answer: C

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NO.16 A company is in the business of distributing hard candies. The distribution of these candies is
automated and the system that helps track information about candy distribution is written in Java
technology. The business unit for the company has been asking the IT group to provide a flexible
reporting system to track detailed information. A large amount of data about candy is stored using a DAO
layer, but little is used. What is the best solution for the IT group to implement to provide the most flexibility
for the business unit?
A. refactor the DAOs to include additional static queries to pull information and export a
spreadsheet for the business unit to review
B. implement an ad-hoc query tool exposed using JSF that allows business units to create queries and
produce results in a given format
C. provide a JSP page, which has scriptlets that expose pre-defined queries for the business unit to
execute and display in HTML
D. create a web service that exposes fixed queries invoked by a JSP client that can pull data from the
database and export in a given format
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which application would NOT be a good candidate for an EJB-centric implementation of the business
tier?
A. an application that transfers money between accounts
B. a news-oriented web site that receives millions of hits a day
C. an application with business logic that calls third-party web services
D. a small workflow-oriented application to provision and deprovision employee accounts
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two characteristics are NOT important factors in the selection of a web application framework
for a large project? (Choose two.)
A. complexity of the framework
B. degree of usage in the industry
C. availability of a unit test framework
D. reusability of model and view components
E. separation of concerns afforded by the framework
F. level of integration with common logging frameworks
Answer: C,F

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NO.19 You are designing a company e-Commerce site. The site will be hosted on a single powerful server
that has sufficient CPU, memory, storage, and network bandwidth so that clustering is not needed. The
architecture must maintain session state including a shopping cart and recent searches. JSP and JPA
have already been selected as the presentation tier and persistence tier implementations, respectively.
What do you recommend as the most appropriate way to maintain session state in the application?
A. an entity bean
B. stateful session beans
C. the HttpSession object
D. a message-driven bean
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about the Flyweight pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It allows a single instance of a class to virtually represent many instances.
B. When used appropriately it can reduce memory demands on your servers.
C. It allows for many instances of a class to be controlled by a single instance.
D. It allows many tightly related, homogeneous objects to each maintain their own state.
Answer: A,B

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-884
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris Cluster 3.2 System Administrator Certified Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 243 Q&As

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NO.1 Solaris 10 allows resource allocation to users by assigning them projects. Consider having to
automatically assign a project to an Oracle user, to start your HA-Oracle database.
Which two options would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Use the newtask command
B. Assign a project to the user using only the /etc/project file.
C. Assign a project to the user using both the /etc/project and the /etc/user_attr file.
D. Use the Resource_project_name property to pass the project to be used when starting Oracle.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 A patch has been released for a recently discovered security issue. The cluster administrator has
downloaded the patch and the README shows that it is a rebooting node patch that must be installed in
single-user mode.
What steps should be followed to apply this patch with the minimum amount of downtime for the service.
A. On each node in turn run the commands:
clnode evacuate -
n
shutdown -gO -y -i0
boot -sx
Apply the patch.
Reboot back into cluster.
B. On one node run the following commands:
clrg status
clrg offline
+
On each node in turn run the commands:
shutdown -g0 -y -i0
boot -sx
Apply the patch.
Reboot back into cluster.
When all nodes are patched run the following commands from one node:
clrg online
+
clrg status
C. Connect to all nodes using the cluster console and apply the patch simultaneously.
Reboot each node in turn.
D. On one node run the commands:
clrg status
cluster shutdown -g0
y
Reboot each node outside cluster.
boot -sx
Apply the patch on each node and reboot back into cluster.
boot
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has a resource group called nfs-rg with a SUNW.nfs resource called nfs-rs. They want to
check how the Failover_mode property has been set.
Which is the correct command used to accomplish this task ?
A. clrg status
B. clrs show -g nfs-rg
C. clrs show -v nfs-rs
D. clrs list -v nfs-rs
Answer: C

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NO.4 There are various ways to interact with Sun Cluster 3.2 to do daily administration.
Which method is prohibited?
A. using the clsetup command
B. editing the ccr
C. using Sun Cluster Manager
D. using standard cluster commands
Answer: B

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NO.5 You want to create a role that contains only the authorizations Solaris.cluster.modify and
Solaris.cluster.admin. As you then decide which users should be able to successfully access every cluster
command, you can just assign these users to the role and give them the role password.
These users will never need to have the root password, but they will be able to execute every cluster
command.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. This scheme will work for both cluster commands and Sun Cluster Manager.
B. There are still some cluster-related activities, such as modifying the /etc/vfstab file, that the user might
NOT be able to do.
C. The users who switch to the role will still NOT have Solaris.cluster.read authorization, so they will not
be able to view cluster status and configuration.
D. This scheme will work as the users try to access command line commands, but it will NOT work if the
users execute operations through Sun Cluster Manager.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which commands would be used to define a third private network using switches for a two-node
cluster?
A. clintr add-privnet -s switch3 node1:bge2,node2:bge2
B. clintr add node1:bge2
C. clintr add node1:bge2
D. clintr add -s switch3 node1:bge2 node2:bge2
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have a three-node cluster and have put one node into maintenance mode.
What do you need to do to give the node its vote back and bring it back into the cluster?
A. Re-install the node to fix the maintenance mode.
B. Reboot the node, the maintenance mode will reset automatically.
C. Remove the node from the cluster, then add it back into the cluster.
D. Add another quorum disk device before booting the node back into the cluster.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer needs to do some maintenance to an application resource in their NFS resource group.
They want to have NFS resources active, but want to be sure that if anything goes wrong during the
operation, the NFS service is NOT restarted or the resource group switched.
How can this be accomplished ?
A. The customer can suspend the resource group.
B. The customer can place the resource group into a quiescent state.
C. The customer can place the resource group offline and then enable only the required
resources.
D. The customer can keep the resource group online and then disable monitoring for all the resources.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two Veritas Volume Manager packages need to be installed on all nodes connected to the
shared storage? (Choose two.)
A. VRTSjre
B. VRTSvlic
C. VRTSvxvm
D. VRTSobgui
E. VRTSvxman
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 You have two adapters that you want to configure in the same IPMP group. Neither of them are yet
configured into any IPMP group. The cluster nodes are already configured.
Which tasks must you perform to configure the group?
A. You need to rerun the scinstall utility and let it create your IPMP groups for you.
B. You need to create or edit the /etc/hostname.xxx files for each adapter, using the group option to place
them in the same group.
C. You need to use the clinterconnect (clintr) command and specify the adapters for which you want to
create IPMP groups.
D. You need to create or edit the /etc/hostname.xxx file for only one adapter. In that file, you list all the
adapters that will be in the same group.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The SUNW.HAStoragePlus resource manages different types of storage. In which case is it mandatory
to configure HAStoragePlus?
A. to manage global raw devices
B. to manage global file systems
C. to manage failover file systems
D. to manage global file system devices with an Oracle RAC configuration
Answer: C

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NO.12 You need to have two failover IP addresses on separate subnets both fail over along with an
application. How do you create your IP address resources?
A. You can create a single LogicalHostname resource respresenting both IP addresses.
B. You must create two separate LogicalHostname resources and put them in the same resource group
as the application resource.
C. You must create two separate LogicalHostname resources and put them in two separate resource
groups. A resource group can only contain one LogicalHostname resource.
D. You must create a SharedAddress resource. Only a SharedAddress resource can refer to multiple IP
addresses.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You run cldg status to view the status of your device group. What must be true about the node that is
listed as the Primary.?
A. It is the preferred node for the device group.
B. It is the current primary node for the device group, not necessarily the preferred node.
C. A global file system configured on a volume of the device group can only be accessed from that node.
D. The device group can run only on that node. If that node fails, the device group will become
unavailable.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the complete list of acceptable Veritas volumes to hold your Sun Cluster 3.2 application data
on arrays of JBOD disks?
A. mirrored stripe, striped mirrors
B. simple mirrors, mirrored stripe, striped mirrors
C. concatenated subdisks, striped subsets, simple mirrors
D. striped mirrors, striped subdisks, concatenated subdisks, concatenated mirrors
Answer: B

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NO.15 A system administrator has received the Java ES distribution as a two-CD set, and wishes to configure
an NFS server to use as an install server for Sun Cluster 3.2.
What is the correct procedure?
A. Mount and share each CD from a separate server.
B. This is NOT possible, only the DVD distribution can be used in this case.
C. Create a working directory, share it using NFS, and combine the contents of both CDs into it using the
cpio command.
D. Mount the first CD and share it using NFS. When prompted by the installer, unshare and unmount the
CD, and repeat the process with the second CD.
Answer: C

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NO.16 When using ZFS for your shared storage within the cluster, how do you specify the file system
mountpoint?
A. ZFS does not use mountpoints.
B. You must define mountpoints in the /etc/vfstab file first.
C. ZFS mountpoints default to /poolname/fsname, but you can change them to whatever you want using
the zfs command
D. Sun Cluster chooses the name of the file system mountpoints for ZFS.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which is applicable to the Cluster Configuration Repository (CCR)?
A. The CCR is only accessed by the cluster software at boot time.
B. The CCR contains information that is critical to the operation of the cluster.
C. The CCR should be configured on shared storage so that all nodes can access it
D. To ensure consistency between the cluster nodes the CCR should be manually copied to all nodes on
a regular basis.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Occasionally you may need to rebuild your cluster. If you rebuilt a cluster named "dev" without
removing the old quorum server information, you may want to clean up the old quorum server information
manually.
Which command would you use to remove the old quorum server information after using the command
clqs show to obtain the cluster name and ID?
(--- Cluster dev (id 0x448DE82F) Registrations ---)
A. clclust remove -F quorum-serv-v
B. clqs clear -c dev -I 0x448DE82F 9000
C. scquorum -c dev -I 0x448DE82F 9000
D. Reboot the quorum server
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the minimum number of nodes required to make a highly available cluster?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Eight
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two types of communication can occur on the private interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. cluster heartbeats
B. application data transfer
C. vxconfigd communication
D. Solaris Volume Manager communication
Answer: A,B

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NO.21 Which two components are part of the Sun Cluster 3.2 software stack? (Choose two.)
A. operating system
B. Sun Cluster 3.2 agents
C. Sun Cluster 3.2 framework
D. volume management software
Answer: B,C

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NO.22 You need to remove the Veritas Volume Manager volume named nfsvol in the nfsdg disk group which
is mounted on /nfs.
Which set of commands are used to perform this procedure?
A. umount /nfs; cldg remove nfsdg -r volume nfsvol; scconf sync nfsdg
B. umount /nfs; vxassist -g nfsdg remove volume nfsvol; cldg sync nfsdg
C. unmount -g nfsdg all; vxassist -g nfsdg remove all; cldg sync nfsvol
D. unmount /nfs; vxassist -g nfsdg remove volume nfsvol; cldg sync nfsvol
Answer: B

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NO.23 A two-node Solaris Volume Manager campus cluster has been installed at sites A and B. A preferred site
A can be configured so that the cluster survives the loss of site B without requiring manual intervention.
Which is the correct procedure to create a preferred site A ?
A. Put the quorum device at site A and configure the majority of the diskset metadb replicas on the disks
located at site A.
B. Put the quorum device at site A and add an extra metadb to the disks in the diskset at both sites A and
B.
C. Put the quorum device at site A and add an extra local metadb to the root disk on the server located at
site A.
D. You cannot do this unless you configure a third site with the quorum device and with
the diskset configured across all three sites, so that the loss of one site will always ensure that two out of
the three metadbs are present.
Answer: A

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NO.24 The cluster administrator is running SunCluster 3.2 on x86 machines running Solaris 10 update 3, and
needs to boot one of the x86 machines into non-cluster mode.
To which menu item does the cluster administrator add -x' using the GRUB editor?
A. kernel /platform/i86pc/multiboot
B. kernel /platform/i86pc/suserboot
C. Solaris 10 11/06 s10x_u3wos_08 X86
D. module /platform/i86pc/boot_archive
Answer: A

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NO.25 You just created a Solaris Volume Manager diskset from the shared storage containing two disks, one
from each of two arrays. You added two connected nodes as mediators for the diskset.
Which two of the following are true? (Choose two.)
A. You must manually create a partition on the diskset disks to hold a metadb replica.
B. The metainit commands that you use to build volumes on the disks will fail unless you mirror across
arrays.
C. The mediators allow you to lose a disk and subsequently maintain high availability if a node fails.
D. If you lose one of the disks and then lose the node that is primary for the diskset, the entire cluster will
lose access to the diskset.
E. The Solaris Volume Manager commands that added disks to the diskset automatically created a single
metadb replica on each disk.
Answer: C,E

Oracle   1Z0-884   1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.26 Which statement is incorrect regarding the in.mpathd daemon?
A. IPMP uses ping to contact any router listed in the routing table.
B. If no router exists, IPMP submits a ping to the all-hosts multicast address.
C. If static host routes are available, these hosts will be contacted using ping.
D. You can configure link state monitoring on Solaris 9.
Answer: D

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NO.27 You have a two-node cluster configured. Node one is out of the cluster. You make changes to node two
(add resource groups and disk device groups). You now shut down node two and try to boot node one,
which fails due to amnesia prevention.
Which two keep node one from starting the cluster? (Choose two.)
A. scsi-2 reservations
B. Persistent reservations on the quorum device.
C. Nothing will keep node one from starting the cluster.
D. Node one's key has been previously preempted from the quorum device.
Answer: B,D

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NO.28 Which are three reasons to disable automatic quorum device configuration in a two-node cluster?
(Choose three.)
A. You have a dual ported disk or LUN that is not capable of being a quorum device.
B. You want to use a second internal drive for your quorum device.
C. You want to use the quorum server as the quorum device.
D. You want to use a NAS device as a quorum device.
E. You want to use your boot device as your quorum device.
Answer: A,C,D

Oracle examen   1Z0-884 examen   1Z0-884   1Z0-884

NO.29 When using ZFS for your shared storage within the cluster, the mountpoints default to
"/poolname/fsname". You can change the mountpoint name to whatever you want. You want to change
the mountpoint for the filesystem myfs1 in the pool devpool to /oradb.
Which command do you use?
A. zset mount=/oradb devpool/myfs1
B. zpool setmount=/oradb poolname/fsname
C. zfs /oradb set mountpoint devpool/all
D. zfs set mountpoint=/oradb devpool/myfs1
Answer: D

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NO.30 When using ZFS to maintain your cluster file systems, what other software volume management
application do you need to manage the device groups?
A. You do not need any other volume manager software.
B. SVM is needed to manage your disksets.
C. VxVM is needed to manage your disk groups.
D. Veritas CVM is needed to manage the shared disk groups.
Answer: A

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