Pass4Test offre une formation sur Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-108 4A0-105 4A0-104 4A0-103 4A0-102 matériaux examen

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-108

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Multicast Protocols)

Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-105

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Virtual Private LAN Services)

Questions et réponses: 59 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-104

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Services Architecture)

Questions et réponses: 141 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-103

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Multiprotocol Label Switching)

Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-102

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Border Gateway Protocol)

Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 Which MAC address will multicast address 224.128.0.1 translate to?
A.01-00-5e-80-00-01
B.01-00-5e-22-41-40
C.01-00-5e-22-28-01
D.00-01-5e-80-00-01
E.01-00-5e-00-00-01
F.01-01-5e-22-28-01
Answer:E

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NO.2 An end station receiving a broadcast packet will always process the data up to which layer of
the OSI stack?
A.Layer 1
B.Layer 2
C.Layer 3
D.Layer 4
E.Layer 7
Answer:C

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NO.3 What is the range of addresses allocated for SSM?:
A.239.0.0.0/8
B.233.x.y.0/24
C.224.0.0.0/24
D.232.0.0.0/8
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which two of the following addresses should not be used in a multicast network at the same
time?
A.233.44.12.35
B.234.45.12.35
C.235.46.12.35
D.236.174.12.35
E.237.171.12.35
Answer:C D

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NO.5 Choose the answer that best completes the statement: An end station on an Ethernet network
receiving an IP multicast packet will:
A.Determine at Layer 1 if it is interested in the frame
B.Determine at Layer 2 if it is interested in the frame
C.Determine at Layer 2 after reading the protocol ID field if it is interested in the frame
D.Determine at Layer 3 if it is interested in the frame
E.Determine at Layer 7 if it is interested in the frame
Answer:B

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NO.6 Which MAC address will the IP multicast address 239.33.42.107 translate to?
A.01-00-5e-a1-2a-6b
B.01-00-5e-21-2a-6b
C.01-00-5e-21-2c-6c
D.00-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
E.00-01-5e-21-2a-6b
F.01-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
Answer:B

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-108   4A0-108

NO.7 Which of the following are characteristics of the one to many model of multicast data delivery?
(Choose two)
A.Receivers are generally unknown by the source
B.Well suited for applications in which the receivers provide feedback to each other and the source
C.There is a single data flow, from the source to the receivers
D.All devices are potentially capable of generating multicast data
E.Receivers are generally known by each other since any receiver may be a source
Answer:A C

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NO.8 The OUI field of the MAC address for IP multicast frames is:
A.00-01-5e
B.01-01-53
C.01-01-5e
D.01-00-5e
E.01-00-53
Answer:D

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NO.9 The use of PIM as a multicast routing protocol provides for which one of the following services?
A.Authentication
B.Guaranteed Delivery
C.Device Security
D.Preventing packet forwarding loops
E.Preventing Denial of Service attacks
Answer:D

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-108   4A0-108   4A0-108

NO.10 How many bits of the IP multicast address are copied directly to the multicast MAC address?
A.27
B.5
C.28
D.9
E.23
Answer:E

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Software Certifications CSTE, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: CSTE

Nom d'Examen: Software Certifications (CSTE Certified Software Test Engineer (CSTE))

Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

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NO.1 Many types of errors can be identified and fixed far more economically by design and code
inspections than by testing
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 Quality can be separated from the controls associated with it?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 Achieving quality requires:
A. Exceeding the customer's expectations
B. Focusing on the customer
C. Meeting all the definitions of quality
D. All the above
E. Understanding the customer's expectations
Answer: D

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NO.4 A standard is not an expected norm
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 The objective of risk analysis is to help IT management strike an economic balance between
the
impact of risks and the cost of protective measures.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the relationship between testing and quality assurance?
A. QA is part of a complete testing process
B. Testing and QA are two terms for the same thing
C. Testing is part of a complete QA process
D. When Testing is over it becomes QA
Answer: C

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NO.7 The essence of a quality internal product is:
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Improving internal processes
C. Delivering the right product
Answer: A

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8. The purpose of software testing is to____________.
A. Detect the existence of defects
B. Demonstrate that the application works properly
C. Validate the logical design
Answer: A

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9. White Box testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is not known.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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10. Function points are hardware and software independent.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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L'avènement de la certification C++ Institute pratique d'examen CPA questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CPA

Nom d'Examen: C++ Institute (C++ Certified Associate Programmer)

Questions et réponses: 220 Q&As

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NO.1 What happens if you try to compile and run this program?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main (int argc, const char * argv[])
{
print("Test");
return 0;
}
void print(int c[])
{
cout<<c;
}
A. It prints: Test
B. Compilation fails
C. Program terminates abnormally
D. None of these
Answer: B

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NO.2 What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int getValue();
int main()
{
const int x = getValue();
cout<<x;
return 0;
}
int getValue()
{
return 5;
}
A. It will print 0
B. The code will not compile.
C. It will print 5
D. It will print garbage value
Answer: C

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NO.3 How many times will "HELLO" be printed?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
for(int i=?1; i<=10; i++)
{
if(i < 5)
continue;
else
break;
cout<<"HELLO";
}
return 0;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 20
Answer: C

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L'avènement de la certification PayPal pratique d'examen P11-101 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: P11-101

Nom d'Examen: PayPal (PayPal Certified Developer: Payments)

Questions et réponses: 113 Q&As

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NO.1 When you (as a developer, using your own API credentials) are running Express Checkout API calls
on behalf of a merchant what variable can you use to pass the merchant's PayPal account email address
so that the payment is associated with the merchant's account?
A. EMAIL
B. MERCHANTID
C. SELLEREMAIL
D. SUBJECT
Answer: D

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NO.2 When using Express Checkout, what is the proper URL to use to direct the customer to PayPa after a
successful SetExpressCheckout API call.?
A. https://www.pavpal.com/webscr?token=
B. https://vw/w.pavpal.com/cqi-bin/webscr?token=
C. https://www.paypal.com/expresscheckout?token=
D. https://www.paypal.com/webscr?cmd=_express-checkout&token=
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is Instant Payment Notification (IPN)?
A. An email notification feature within a PayPal account
B. A server side POST of transaction data
C. A text message notification feature within a PayPal account
D. Transaction data returned through the get string on website return
Answer: B

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NO.4 You want to hard set the shipping in the HTML code for your non-hosted cleartext PayPal add-tocart
button to $0.99 for an item and each additional quantity of the same item.
Which two of the following variables could you use?
A. item_shipping_1
B. item_shipping_2
C. ship_amt_1
D. ship_amt_2
E. shipping
F. shipping2
Answer: E,F

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NO.5 When creating a subscription button, what variable sets the subscription to reattempt a failed recurring
payment before canceling it?
A. sra
B. src
C. srf
D. srr
E. srt
Answer: A

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NO.6 If a Business account does not have Website Payments Pro, which of the following API methods is not
available for use?
A. DoExpressCheckoutPayment
B. TransactionSearch
C. GetTransactionDetails
D. DoDirectPayment
E. RefundTransaction
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following payment methods does not directly use funds from a customer bank account?
A. ACH
B. Credit card
C. Debit card
D. eCheck
Answer: B

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NO.8 When setting the value for the variable cmd. which of the following is not a valid value?
A. _cart
B. _xclick
C. _xclick-auto-billing
D. _xclick-donations
E. _xclick-subscriptions
Answer: D

PayPal   certification P11-101   P11-101   P11-101

NO.9 When using the Instant Update/Callback API with Express Checkout, which three of the following are
valid variables that need to be passed over in the SetExpressCheckout API call?
A. CALLBACK
B. CALLBACKPAGE
C. CALLBACKTIMEOUT
D. CALLBACKVERSION
E. CALLBACKMETHOD
Answer: A,C,D

PayPal   P11-101   P11-101

NO.10 When the data passed back to PayPal to check on its authenticity through IPN is not the same as the
data sent from PayPal you get a response of a single word. What word is that?
A. UNCONFIRMED
B. UNILATERAL
C. INVALID
D. FAIL
E. UNVERIFIED
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the correct sequence of these operations for executing an Instant Update API call?
1. POST shipping options to PayPal
2. Extract shipping address token from Instant Update message
3. API call to postal carrier to calculate rate based on shipping address
4. Call GetExpressCheckoutDetails to obtain buyer's shipping options
A. 2, 4, 3, 1
B. 4, 1, 2, 3
C. 4.2, 3, 1
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: D

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NO.12 When executing a DoCapture API call, what value should you pass as the authorization ID parameter?
A. authorizationId=<correlationId>
B. authorizationId=<authorizationId>
C. authorizationId=<orderId>
D. authorizationId=<transactionId>
Answer: D

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NO.13 What does "authorization" mean in the context of credit card processing?
A. Process of collecting a payment from a customer's credit card
B. Process of obtaining customer's consent for payment
C. Verification of availability of funds from customer's credit card
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.14 Sam uses Adaptive Payments' Pay API to set up payments so he is the API caller. He would like to allow
"guest payment" ("guest checkout"): that is, the payer does not have to have a PayPal account but can
make the payment using a credit card. To achieve that which two of the following should Sam make sure
of?
A. He should use himself as the primary receiver if it is a chained payment.
B. All receivers of a guest payment need to be either Premier or Business verified PayPal accounts.
C. He should not specify the sender's email in the Pay API call that sets up the payment.
D. He should not use embedded payment flow for Adaptive Payments since guest checkout function is
not available in it.
E. He should store the payer's credit card information in his site/application.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Which three are true about eCheck?
A. The sender's PayPal account contains one or more bank accounts but no linked credit card.
B. A payment is still an eCheck even though the sender has enough PayPal balance in his/her account.
C. An eCheck payment cannot be refunded with the Refund API of Adaptive Payments.
D. Sender and primary receiver of a chained payment cannot use eCheck.
E. Funding of an eCheck is not available right away in the receiver's account, since PayPal needs to wait
for the sender's bank to clear it first.
Answer: A,D,E

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L'avènement de la certification Pegasystems pratique d'examen PEGACSSA-v6.2 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PEGACSSA-v6.2

Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (Certified Senior System Architect (CSSA) Exam (PEGACSSA_v6.2))

Questions et réponses: 209 Q&As

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NO.1 Branding wizard cannot be used to __________? (Choose One)
A. create a new skin
B. delete a skin
C. copy a standard skin
D. modify the skin created in the application RuleSet
Answer: B

Pegasystems   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.2 Which of the following is the most appropriate way to limit which operators can execute a
particular flow action? (Choose One)
A. A When rule referenced on the flow action form
B. A privilege referenced on the flow action form
C. A Rule-Obj-Validate referenced on the flow action form
D. An activity, that calls a decision rule, referenced on the flow action form
Answer: B

Pegasystems   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen

NO.3 What type of property is "Drivers" in the
following syntax: .Policy.Drivers(OWNER).Name? (Choose One)
A. Page
B. Page List
C. Page Group
D. Single Value
Answer: C

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.4 The UpdateInfo flow action is called by the MainFlow flow. Each rule is defined in the classes
below.
MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff is the class of the work object. If a data transform, SetInfo, is
defined at both MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff and MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work, which will
be executed? (Choose One)
A. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff because it is the class of the work object
B. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work-TimeOff because it is the class of the calling flow
C. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work because it is the class of the flow action
D. MyCo-HR-SelfService-Work because it is the class group
Answer: A

Pegasystems examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.5 Which of the following is most accurate about the branding wizard? (Choose One)
A. Finish all steps in the same order only during creating a new skin
B. Finish all steps in the same order only when copying a standard skin
C. The skin can be modified in the branding wizard multiple times
D. Must always use quick create when creating a new skin
Answer: C

Pegasystems examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.6 Which of the following statements most accurately describes forward and backward chaining
expressions? (Choose One)
A. In most cases forward chaining rules perform better, however there are some cases when
backward chaining rules perform better
B. Forward chaining expressions always perform better
C. Backward chaining expressions always perform better
D. In most cases backward chaining rules perform better, however there are some cases when
forward chaining rules perform better
Answer: A

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.7 The Optimize for Reporting wizard is run on a BENEFICIARYID property in a newly created
BENEFICIARIES page list property. To support this action, PRPC creates all of the following, except:
(Choose One)
A. A database index on the BENEFICIARYID column
B. A BENEFICIARYID database table column
C. A declarative index
D. Another BENEFICIARYID property
Answer: A

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.8 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the PRPC threading model?
(Choose One)
A. PRThreads are simply Java Threads running within PRPC context
B. PRThreads are essentially namespace for requestor clipboard pages
C. PRPC constantly runs multiple PRThreads concurrently
D. All of the above
Answer: B

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.9 Which of the following is the best use of a data table? (Choose One)
A. Managing the mapping between account levels and discount rates (approx 10 account levels)
B. Managing the list of rules that should run when pricing a loan (approx 30 rules)
C. Managing a list of valid vendors and their addresses (approx 30 vendors)
D. Managing the effective dates of different discounts (approx 20 discounts each with up to 3
effective dates)
Answer: C

Pegasystems   certification PEGACSSA-v6.2   PEGACSSA-v6.2

NO.10 The connector rules can be invoked from ________. (Choose Two)
A. Flow
B. Data Transform
C. Activity
D. Flow Action
E. Another Connector rule
Answer: A,C

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ISQI CTFL-001 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CTFL-001

Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

certification ISQI   CTFL-001 examen   CTFL-001

NO.2 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

ISQI examen   CTFL-001   CTFL-001

NO.3 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

ISQI   CTFL-001 examen   CTFL-001   CTFL-001

NO.4 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

ISQI   certification CTFL-001   certification CTFL-001   CTFL-001 examen

NO.5 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

certification ISQI   CTFL-001   CTFL-001   certification CTFL-001   CTFL-001 examen

NO.6 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

ISQI examen   CTFL-001   certification CTFL-001   certification CTFL-001

NO.7 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

ISQI   CTFL-001   CTFL-001 examen   CTFL-001

NO.8 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

ISQI examen   CTFL-001   CTFL-001 examen   certification CTFL-001

NO.9 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

ISQI   certification CTFL-001   CTFL-001

NO.10 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

ISQI   CTFL-001   certification CTFL-001   CTFL-001

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Code d'Examen: CQE

Nom d'Examen: ASQ (Quality Engineer Exam)

Questions et réponses: 162 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is the BEST method to developing materials for a training program on
the
gaps in performance?
A. Secure a workshop trainer.
B. Review a record of activities.
C. Set up a one shot case study.
D. Allocate employees for training.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following quality gurus was very critical of merit-pay and individual bonuses?
He discouraged management by objectives and the ranking of employees by performance.
A. Dr. Juran
B. Dr. Deming
C. Dr. Taguchi
D. Dr. Feigenbaum
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT considered a prevention cost?
A. Writing operating procedures.
B. Training.
C. Data acquisition and analysis.
D. Calibrating test equipment.
Answer: D

ASQ   CQE examen   CQE   CQE   CQE

NO.4 During the building phase of improvement team development, which of the following properly
describes team activities?
. The team leader is usually directive.
. The team leader often delegates tasks.
. Team members prioritize and perform duties.
. Team members are uncertain of their duties.
A. IIandIIIonly
B. I,IIandIIIonly
C. IandIV only
D. II,IIIandIV only
Answer: C

ASQ   CQE   certification CQE   certification CQE   CQE

NO.5 Information that is received by upper management, is often distorted. Which of the following
actions is effective in countering this problem?
. Stop killing the messenger.
. Establishing an open door policy.
. Practice management by walking around.
A. Ionly
B. IandIIonly
C. IandIIIonly
D. I,IIandIII
Answer: D

certification ASQ   CQE   CQE

NO.6 In most cases, an improvement team facilitator will NOT normally:
A. Be familiar with problem solving techniques.
B. Provide feedback to the group.
C. Function as the group leader.
D. Summarize key ideas generated by the group.
Answer: C

certification ASQ   CQE   CQE   CQE

NO.7 Benchmarking might be defined as any of the following EXCEPT:
A. A process for rigorously measuring your performance versus the best-in-class companies.
B. A standard of excellence or achievement against which other similar things must be measured
orjudged.
C. Comparing the performance of one company to a set of standards and then to
another'sperformance.
D. The search for best industry practices that lead to superior performance.
Answer: C

certification ASQ   certification CQE   CQE examen   CQE

NO.8 What are the major disadvantages of having an improvement team that is too large?
. Difficulty in having constructive input from the entire group.
. Difficulty in arriving at consensus.
. Difficulty in finding large meeting facilities.
. Difficulty, on the part of the recorder, in keeping up with more paperwork.
A. Ionly
B. IandIIonly
C. I,IIandIIIonly
D. I, II,IIIandIV
Answer: B

ASQ examen   CQE   certification CQE   CQE   CQE   certification CQE

NO.9 An improvement in quality costs is MOST clearly indicated when:
A. Appraisal and failure costs drop.
B. Prevention costs increase.
C. Total quality costs fall below 15% of total sales.
D. Management objectives are met.
Answer: D

ASQ examen   CQE   CQE

NO.10 The ideal results of a quality training effort would NOT include which of the following?
A. Increased cost-of-quality results.
B. Improved working methods and morale.
C. Increased productivity and job satisfaction.
D. Reduced defects and employee turn-over.
Answer: A

ASQ examen   CQE   CQE

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Code d'Examen: MSC-131

Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy AirDefense Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 You have configured your ADSP appliance to use a RADIUS server to validate user credentials upon
GUI logon. However, users continue to be validated directly by ADSP. What additional step must be taken
to ensure GUI users are authenticated via the RADIUS server you configured when they are logging into
ADSP?
A. The ADSP appliance must be rebooted to ensure the settings are recorded properly
B. Each user account must be configured to use the correct RADIUS server for authentication
C. You must log into the CLI using the SMXMGR account and run the Enforce Credentials command
D. Log into the GUI with your admin account and click on the Synchronize RADIUS Accounts button in
Appliance Manager
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions   certification MSC-131   MSC-131   certification MSC-131   MSC-131 examen   MSC-131

NO.2 What security exists for the communication between sensors and the ADSP appliance?
A. EAP-TTLS and SSL
B. PEAP and SSL
C. PKI and SSL
D. EAP-TLS and SSL
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions examen   certification MSC-131   MSC-131   MSC-131   MSC-131   certification MSC-131

NO.3 Your company processes and stores credit card information in a corporate database. You must be able
to determine the status of the company's compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) standard with
regard to wireless device use. How can this be accomplished using ADSP?
A. By running a PCI compliance report at each of the retail store levels of your ADSP tree.
B. By running a PCI compliance report at the accounting department level of your ADSP tree,
C. By running a PCI compliance report at the system level of your ADSP tree.
D. By running a PCI compliance report at network operations center level of your ADSP tree.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   MSC-131 examen   MSC-131   MSC-131   MSC-131

NO.4 Spectrum Analysis can be performed using different modes of operation. Which of following modes
would be the most appropriate to use if you need to perform a Spectrum Analysis and capture information
about the data link layer (Layer 2 of OSI model)?
A. Dual Layer Scan Mode
B. Continuous Scan Mode
C. Background Scan Mode
D. Interference Scan Mode
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   MSC-131 examen   MSC-131   MSC-131   MSC-131

NO.5 Broadcasting the SSID and allowing the access point to respond to clients with no SSID makes it easier
for the clients, but some consider it a security loophole. The theory for disallowing these two practices is
that it helps ° h i d ¡± t h e n e t w ork
What is the problem with this theory?
A. Hiding the SSID turns off the beacons thus disabling passive scanning
B. Not responding to null SSIDs causes the EAP process to break down
C. These values must be present in order for intrusion detection systems to function
D. The SSID will still be present in probe request frames and can be seen with a protocol analyzer
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions   MSC-131 examen   MSC-131   certification MSC-131

NO.6 How can the Wireless Intrusion Protection System (WIPS) feature of the Motorola Solutions
AirDefense Services Platform (ADSP) be used to protect your Wi-Fi network?
A. The WIPS system can remove rogue access points from neighboring networks
B. The WIPS system can utilize RF Jamming to keep your channels clear.
C. The WIPS system can identify wired leakage and other network vulnerabilities
D. The WIPS system can stop neighboring devices from using your channels
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   MSC-131   MSC-131   MSC-131   certification MSC-131   certification MSC-131

NO.7 Which of the following appropriately characterizes a rogue access point (AP)?
A. An AP that is causing Co-Channel interference with your APs.
B. An AP that is not the same brand as your customers APs.
C. An AP that is on your wired network without proper authorization.
D. An AP that is not using the security required by corporate policy.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions examen   MSC-131   MSC-131 examen

NO.8 A requirement for seamless roaming in a Robust Security network is that the access points receive the
Pairwise Master Key (PMK) identifier from the station in the reassociation frame. What other information
must be included in that frame?
A. Any 802.1g VLAN tags.
B. The IP address and subnet mask.
C. The randomly generated shared secret.
D. The MAC address of the old access point.
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions examen   certification MSC-131   MSC-131 examen   MSC-131

NO.9 There was a rogue AP on your network as detected by ADSP. The rogue was displayed in your Alarms.
When you run a wireless security posture details report for the same time range, the rogue does not
appear in the report. What is the most likely cause for the rogue not being in the report?
A. The report was run for a different scope than the one that detected the rogue.
B. Your account was not created in the scope level where the rogue was detected.
C. You are logged into ADSP as a guest account which lacks the permission to run the report.
D. The rogue device has been removed from the network and the corresponding alarm is now inactive.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following best defines a "security risk"?
A. The likelihood of being targeted by a given attack, of an attack being successful, and general exposure
to a given threat.
B. The source and means of a particular type of attack.
C. The security flaws in a system that allow an attack to be successful.
D. Reduced Instruction Set Kernel.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the Bonding command in the ADSP CLI.?
A. The Bonding command is used to link sensors to the correct container in the ADSP tree.
B. The Bonding command is used to enable the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances to synchronize.
C. The Bonding command is used to enable both of the NIC's on ADSP's system board to act as one for
high availability.
D. The Bonding command is used to ensure that both the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances are
configured to use the same IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When would the configuration of ADSP include the use of a RADIUS server?
A. When LDAP is not available
B. When sensor validation is required
C. When sensors require a VPN connection
D. When centralized authentication is required
Answer: D

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NO.13 A new coffee shop opens in your building offering hot-spot internet access. Several of your users are
connecting to the hot-spot while at their desks to bypass your firewall rules. What is the best thing that can
be done using the ADSP system to prevent this?
A. Integrate with the firewall using SNMP and import the same firewall rules.
B. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of authorized AP's.
C. Create a termination policy to prevent authorized stations from using ad-hoc networks.
D. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of your work stations to unauthorized
networks.
Answer: D

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NO.14 You used the Report Builder to create a custom template to support your PCI compliance initiative.
Two weeks later you decide to use the report but you're not quite sure where to locate it. How would you
access this template?
A. By selecting it in the Custom Reports found in the reporting feature
B. By using the search feature in the Web reporting interface
C. By selecting it under the Inactive category on the Reports page
D. By using the Templates drop down box in the Report Builder application
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are the administrator of a very large ADSP installation protecting an international WLAN
deployment. Running a compliance report each day for your boss takes a great deal of your time in the
mornings. What can you do using ADSP to reduce the amount of your time it takes to render this
information and deliver it to your boss?
A. Create a Guest account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for other
tasks.
B. Create an Admin account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for
other tasks.
C. Add the desired report to the Data Collection Polling interval with a daily schedule to be emailed to your
boss.
D. Add the report to your favorites list. Then schedule it to run at an off peak time and to automatically be
emailed to your boss each day.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: S90-01A

Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing)

Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements does not make sense?
A. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it helps increase the quantity of integration projects that
may be required to accommodate new business requirements, thereby fostering agility.
B. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it enables services to exchange data without having to
resort to transformation technologies.
C. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it is fundamental to enabling services to be repeatedly
composed.
D. Intrinsic interoperability is important because one of the goals of service-oriented computing is to
increase intrinsic interoperability.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Below are four statements about business and technology alignment, as it pertains to service-oriented
computing. Which of these statements is false?
A. Business and technology alignment represents the extent to which an IT enterprise and its automated
systems can mirror and evolve in alignment with the business.
B. Service-oriented computing promotes the abstraction and accurate encapsulation and expression of
business logic in services. This supports business and technology alignment.
C. The pursuit of business and technology alignment can be supported by the collaboration of business
analysts and technology experts during analysis and modeling phases.
D. In order for an IT enterprise to increase business and technology alignment, its business analysts must
become more technical and assume the responsibilities of technology experts so that they can
independently design quality business services that take both business and technology considerations
into account.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is not a benefit of maintaining a vendor-neutral and business-driven context for a
service-oriented architecture?
A. Establish a technology architecture with a fixed scope and purpose that remains unchanged,
regardless of how the business may need to change over time.
B. Avoid establishing a technology architecture that will need to be replaced in the near future when it no
longer adequately fulfills business requirements.
C. Leverage new technological innovation in order to maximize the fulfillment of business requirements.
D. Establish a technology architecture that can stay in alignment with how the business may need to
change over time.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In order to achieve __________ we have traditionally required __________ projects. With
service-orientation, we aim to establish an intrinsic level of __________ within each service so as to
reduce the need for __________ effort.
A. vendor diversity, integration, vendor diversity, design
B. agility, development, scalability, development
C. interoperability, integration, interoperability, integration
D. autonomy, integration, statelessness, integration
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is false?
A. A service is a unit of logic to which service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent.
B. Services are designed to increase the need for integration.
C. Services are the fundamental building blocks of service-oriented solutions.
D. A service composition is comprised of services.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is true?
A. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it makes you think about service contract design
options at the same time that you are building the underlying service logic.
B. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it forces you to establish standardized service
contracts prior to the development of the underlying service logic.
C. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because without a contract, services cannot be invoked.
However, there is no preference as to when, during the service delivery lifecycle, the contract should be
designed or established.
D. "Contract first" design is an unproven design technique that is not commonly employed when
delivering service-oriented solutions and is therefore not considered important to SOA.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The governance burden of services is not impacted by the SOA project delivery approach.
B. The bottom-up approach to SOA project delivery results in less up-front impact, but will usually
increase the eventual governance burden of services.
C. Alternative approaches exist that provide a compromise between bottom-up and top-down SOA project
delivery approaches.
D. Up-front analysis as part of a top-down SOA project delivery approach helps reduce the eventual
governance burden of services.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The design standardization of service contracts helps increase interoperability between services.
B. Design standardization can introduce organizational and cultural challenges because it requires that
the design standards be regularly enforced.
C. The design standardization of service contracts helps avoid the need for transformation technologies.
D. Design standardization is not relevant to the design of service compositions. It is only relevant to the
design of individual services.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. To apply service-orientation requires the use of Web services.
B. Web services are required in order to build service-oriented solutions.
C. When discussing SOA and service-oriented computing, the term "Web service" must always be
synonymous with (have the same meaning as) the term "service".
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements accurately describes the strategic benefit of Increased Federation?
A. A target state whereby all services are always consistently delivered as Web services.
B. A target state in which the entire enterprise has been successfully service-oriented.
C. A target state whereby the enterprise has adopted SOA by replacing all legacy environments with
custom-developed services.
D. A target state whereby standardized service contracts have been established to express a consistent
and unified service endpoint layer.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: S90-09A

Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Design & Architecture Lab)

Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of the XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization pattern is being applied and that the Logic
Centralization is not being applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice
document from Service Consumer A to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime
performance requirements of the service composition?
A.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to use XML Schema B so that the SOAP message it sends is
compliant with the service contract of Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can then be
applied to transform the SOAP message sent by Service A so that it conforms to the XML Schema A used
by Service B. The Standardized Service Contract principle must then be applied to Service B and Service
Consumer A so that the invoice XML document is optimized to avoid unnecessary validation.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to write the invoice document directly to the database. This
reduces performance requirements by avoiding the involvement of Service A and Service B. It further
supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle by ensuring that Service Consumer A hides
the details of the data access logic required to write to the database.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

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NO.2 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization and Logic Centralization patterns are being
applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice document from Service Consumer A
to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime performance of the service
composition?
A.The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied so that the invoice document sent by Service
Consumer A is transformed into an invoice document that is compliant with the XML Schema B used by
Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied again to ensure that the invoice
document sent by Service A is compliant with XML Schema A used by Service B.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.The Standardized Service Contract principle can be applied to the service contract of Service A so that
it is redesigned to use XML Schema A. This would make it capable of receiving the invoice document from
Service Consumer A and sending the invoice document to Service B without the need to further apply the
Data Model Transformation pattern.
D.None of the above.
Answer:C

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NO.3 The Client and Vendor services are agnostic services that are both currently part of multiple service
compositions. As a result, these services are sometimes subjected to concurrent access by multiple
service consumers.
The Client service is an entity service that primarily provides data access logic to a client database but
also provides some calculation logic associated with determining a client's credit rating. The Vendor
service is also an entity service that provides some data access logic but can also generate various
dynamic reports.
After reviewing historical statistics about the runtime activity of the two services, it was discovered that the
majority of concurrent runtime access is related to the processing of business rules. With the Client
service, it is the calculation logic that is frequently required and with the Vendor service it is the dynamic
reporting logic that needs to be accessed separately from the actual report generation.
Currently, due to the increasing amount of concurrent access by service consumers, the runtime
performance of both the Client and Vendor services has worsened and has therefore reduced their
effectiveness as service composition members. What steps can be taken to solve this problem without
introducing new services?
A.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied by extracting the business rule logic from the Client
and Vendor services and placing it into a new Rules service. This will naturally improve the runtime
performance of the Client and Vendor services because they will no longer be subjected to the high
concurrent access of service consumers that require access to the business rules logic.
B.The Redundant Implementation pattern can be applied to the Client and Vendor services, thereby
establishing duplicate implementations that can be accessed when a service reaches its runtime usage
threshold. The Intermediate Routing pattern can be further applied to provide load balancing logic that
can, at runtime, determine which of the redundant service implementations is the least busy for a given
service consumer request.
C.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied together with the Redundant Implementation pattern to
establish a scalable Rules service that is redundantly implemented and therefore capable of supporting
high concurrent access from many service consumers. The Service Abstraction principle can be further
applied to hide the implementation details of the Rules service.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: GPHR

Nom d'Examen: HRCI (Global Professional in Human Resource)

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NO.1 According to Gregersen and Black, which of the following type of expatriate is the most likely to work
through problems by constantly weighing the pros and cons of basing decision s on localized values vs.
the corporation ¯ s s t anda r d i zed p r ocedu r es and p r ocesses?
A. Dual citizen
B. Expatriate who ° goes na ti v
C. Homebound expatriate
D. Free agent
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following factors is NOT likely an issue a human resources professional would help a
family to work through to determine the appropriateness of an international assignment for the family at
that time?
A. Is adventure and discovering new things characteristic of the family?
B. Is the family stable and relationships currently harmonious?
C. Is there a history of drug abuse in the family?
D. Are the children open to moving to the host country?
Answer: C

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NO.3 Productivity measures the _______and _______ of work done, taking into account the cost of the
resources it took to do the work
A. quantity and quality
B. output and capital
C. input and output
D. output and quantity
Answer: A

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NO.4 An organization has decided to utilize a geographic organizational structure. It has several offices
throughout Europe and one office in Asia, in particular, in Shenzhen, China. Although the European
offices are very well integrated into headquarters, the office in China has been running fairly
independently. Of the locations, this office has been the most resistant to expatriates entering and to
developing local talent, In fact, headquarters suspects that most of the hiring and promotions have been
based on nepotism. Which of the following gaps does the China office NOT exhibit in this scenario?
A. Retention gap
B. Skill & competency gap
C. Knowledge sharing gap
D. Succession gap
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a common mistake in selection procedures?
A. Ignore long-term strategic considerations and goals for the position
B. Adjusting global competencies to local cultures
C. Use insufficient or not valid selection criteria
D. Choose final candidate too quickly based on time constraints
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following factors dose ONT affect the trainability of individuals?
A. Perception of environment
B. Time
C. Ability
D. Motivation
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following represents motivator to a culture that values asvription?
A. Defined processes and procedures
B. Diplomacy
C. Challenge
D. Network
Answer: D

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NO.8 A manager works very closely with his subordinates to create an effective working environment. Once
a new person is hired, he works with the employee to set realistic goals for the short-tern and long-term.
In addition, he continuously works employees to discuss career paths and career ambitions. He is
constantly coaching, counseling, and mentoring. Once his employees reach goals, he rewards them
through merit increase/bonuses, offering job responsibilities with new challenges, and publicly recognizes
their achievement in cross-departmental meetings. Which of the following motivational theories is least
utilized in his management approach to motivating his employee?
A. B.F. Skinner ¯ Theo r y o f Behav i o r a l R e i n f o r ce m en t
B. McGregor ¯ s Theo r y X and Theo r y Y
C. Vroom ¯ s E xpec t ancy Theo r y
D. Self-Effcacy Theory
E. Herzberg ¯ s M o ti va ti o-Hygiene Theory
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following does NOT represent a strategic financial goal for a global company?
A. Effectively manage currency exchange fluvtuations
B. Decrease cost of goods
C. New market penetration
D. Increase revenue
Answer: C

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NO.10 A corporation has identified an initiative to recruit and train global leaders over the next 5 year in order to
become a truly transnational company. In order to meet this goal, the firm has identified and developed 30
international assignments amongst its 10 office locations. Which of the following candidates would LEAST
match these positions?
A. A 25-year old human resources representative working in South Korea who just started at the company
B. A 40-year old finance manager working in Africa who has been with the company for 8 years
C. A 40-year old manufacturing manager working in Thailand who has been with the company for 5 years
D. A 55-year old engineering manager working in the U.S. who has been with company for 10 years and
has gone on 3 international assignments
Answer: D

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NO.11 In order to develop a global competency model for global leaders at a high tech company, a HR
Manager decides to study the connotation of specific attributes across the various office locations. Which
of the following types of culture would be the LFAST valuable to evaluate in order to develop a valid and
reliable model?
A. Local culture
B. Professional culture
C. National culture
D. Corporate culture
Answer: B

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NO.12 A company is considering moving its production offshore to Shenzhen, China. The HR Manager is
tasked with identifying the supply and demand for skilled labor, the costs of recruiting workers, and the
turnover trends in the area. When conducting this environmental scan, which of the following types of
influences best describes these indicators?
A. Political factors
B. Economic factors
C. International factors
D. Labor market factors
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following is a measure of recruiting effectiveness in the long term?
A. Cost per applicant hired
B. Quantity of applicants
C. Average time required to recruit applicants
D. Turnover of hires
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following factors is an incentive for company to pursue localization?
A. Market reponsiveness
B. Brand integrity
C. Product quality
D. Economies of scale
Answer: A

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NO.15 A company has decided to terminate the employment of an executive for performance reasons. The
HP Manager to create a severance package. Which of the following factors would NOT be considered
when creating the final severance package?
A. Severity of his lock of performance
B. Length of service at company
C. Total compensation in relation to severance package
D. Notice pay protection laws
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following ways does a U.S. company practices regarding industrial relations differ from the
approach of most nations.?
A. Automatic representation
B. Government mandate approach
C. Positive approach
D. Employer free speech
Answer: D

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NO.17 You are assisting a highly talented engineering architect in repatriation after a short-term international
assignment in Bangalore, India After are re-entry, there are no appropriate positions available in the
organization at headquarters. Which of the following goals is NOT a potential goal for redeploying this
individual?
A. Maintain employee morale in the host country
B. Building a global workforce
C. Sharing the recently acquired knowledge
D. Retaining the talent for the future
Answer: A

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NO.18 A good MBO (management by objectives) shares all of the following aspects EXCEPT:
A. Periodic feedback about objectives
B. Goals which align with corporate level goals and strategies
C. Goals are established by the supervisor/manager
D. Goals which are measurable
Answer: C

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NO.19 An U.S. base Engineering Manager has been identified for a short-term six-month assignment to recruit
and build a team in England. Which of the following training programs is the MOST critical to ensure
success on the job?
A. On-the-job training
B. Multi-cultural team building
C. Language
D. Cross-cultural training
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following factors is NOT a significant, variable in how an individual may adjust to a new
cross-cultural environment?
A. Extent of previous experience on international assignments
B. Differences between the cultures
C. Length of time international assignment
D. Family situation
Answer: C

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