2013年6月28日星期五

L'avènement de la certification Symantec pratique d'examen ASC-093 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ASC-093

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010)

Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 What needs to be done with unused Network Interface Cards (NIC) on the Enforce server?
A. They need to be configured to utilize Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
B. They need to be disabled.
C. They need to be configured with a static IP address.
D. They need to be assigned with 127.0.0.1 as their IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.2 If an Enforce server is configured to use Active Directory (AD) authentication for logins, which statement
is true?
A. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been assigned a role.
B. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been added to the
krb5.ini or krb5.conf file.
C. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as their Organizational Unit has been
assigned to a Policy Group.
D. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have a matching user name in
Enforce.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Symantec Data Loss Prevention can be configured to populate custom attributes pulled from a
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. In addition to LiveLdapLookup.properties, which
other file must be modified to configure custom attributes.?
A. Plugins.properties
B. Manager.properties
C. Jdbc.properties
D. Aggregator.properties
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a best practice to be used for monitoring mail traffic in an environment that uses Transport
Layer Security (TLS) for their outbound email?
A. deploy Network Prevent for Email
B. turn TLS off on the outbound email server
C. import the TLS certificate from the outbound email server onto the Network Monitor detection server
D. Data Loss Prevention is not capable of viewing TLS traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the best method for deploying a policy to Endpoint agents that makes use of Index Matching.
A. create the policy using Described Content, then "and" the Index Matching statement into the policy
B. Policies that use Index Matching cannot be deployed to Endpoint agents.
C. create the policy using the Index Matching statement, then "and" a Described Content statement into
the policy
D. combine all Index Matching statements that are to be deployed to Endpoint agents into one single
policy
Answer: A

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NO.6 A user has determined that many incidents are showing 100 matches per incident from the default PCI
policy template. The user needs to increase this limit to better reflect the most critical files with the most
violations. Which change will increase the number of maximum matches per incident?
A. change the value for DI.MaxViolations
B. change the value for IncidentDetection.patternConditionMaxViolations
C. change the value for EDM.MaximumNumberOfMatchesToReturn
D. change the value for Incident Threshold within the relevant policy
Answer: A

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NO.7 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Prevent supports load balancing among multiple Prevent servers
in high volume networks. In the absence of a network load balancing device, what is the best practice for
enabling load balance among multiple Prevent servers?
A. enable Load Balancing in the Settings, Servers Overview page
B. In the case of Network Prevent for Email, the upstream MTA is configured with the IP address of each
Prevent server. This is done in a similar fashion for the web proxy server(s) with the IP address of each
Network Prevent for web server.
C. A third Network Interface Card (NIC) is required for each Prevent server to be used as a "heartbeat
monitor" to the other Prevent servers. Once installed and configured, the Prevent servers act as a virtual
cluster.
D. configure a DNS alias to point to the IP address of each Prevent server, also known as a DNS Round
Robin
Answer: D

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NO.8 When implementing an automated response rule, what must be done to make the rule execute?
A. select Incident All and click the Response Rule button to execute
B. enable response rules from the Settings page
C. add the response rule to the appropriate policy
D. Automated response rules are effective as soon as they are created
Answer: C

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NO.9 Endpoint agents CANNOT monitor data copies to what?
A. CD/DVD
B. network shares
C. USB (for example, thumb drives)
D. printers/faxes
Answer: B

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NO.10 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can use custom SSL certificates to secure communication between the
Endpoint server and Endpoint agents. What is the name of the tool that is used to create these
certificates?
A. endpointssl.exe
B. endpointkeytool.exe
C. sslkeytool.exe
D. endpointsslkey.exe
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ASC-094

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC Storage Management Assessment)

Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with srlprot attribute set to autodcm. In
the event that the SRL overflows, what will happen?
A. VVR will delay any further writes to the primary node until the SRL has drained below the
low-watermark threshold
B. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR then
automatically replicates writes tracked by the DCM.
C. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR stops and the
DCM must be replayed manually.
D. VVR stops replicating and writes in the SRL are converted into DCM logging. The DCM must then be
replayed manually.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are the limitations when upgrading CVM and CFS to version 5.1?
A. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the same versions of software; rolling upgrades
with mixed versions of software are only supported from 5.1 onwards.
B. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the latest MP for the current version prior to the
upgrade to 5.1.
C. Rolling upgrades can only be performed from version 5.0 to 5.1; rolling upgrades from 4.1 are not
supported
D. Rolling upgrades can only be performed if the diskgroup and filesystem versions remain unchanged
until all of the systems have been upgraded to the same version of software
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two components should ordinarily be configured within a Relicated Volume Group (RVG)?
(Select two.)
A. SRL
B. RDS
C. DCM
D. Diskgroup
E. Rlink
Answer: A, C

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NO.4 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with the srlprot attribute set to override.
If there is an SRL overflow while the RLINK is connected, what happens to the running application issuing
writes.?
A. Application continues, and VVR overflows the SRL.
B. Application is blocked until SRL drains 5% or 20 megabytes, whichever is smaller.
C. Application is blocked until the RLINK is automatically detached after AutoDetach seconds have
elapsed.
D. Application continues, and VVR is automatically converted to DCM logging.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer has Veritas Volume Replication (VVR) version 5.1 with the following Rlink attributes:
synchronous=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps Which statement is true?
A. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, then the
bandwidth_limit attribute will be overridden to try and maintain a synchronous copy of the data at the
secondary site.
B. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, it will
automatically fall-back to asynchronous mode to enable replication within the defined bandwidth limits.
C. VVR will throttle the write operations on the primary server in order to replicate the data
synchronously to the secondary site within the bandwidth limits. In the event of a network failure VVR will
fallback to asynchronous replication mode and the write operations on the primary server will no longer be
throttled, but the bandwidth for replicating to the secondary site will still be limited.
D. The bandwidth_limit attribute does not apply to synchronous replication, however in the event that the
rLink falls back to asynchronous mode the data will then be replicated within the defined bandwidth limits.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer has two identical servers that support an OLTP database and billing application, respectively.
Each night they run a batch job to create a full Volume Manager snapshot of their OLTP database, which
is then imported and mounted on the other server to support the billing application. The customer has
asked an administrator to upgrade the version of Storage Foundation on the OLTP server to version 5.1.
Which action should be taken when performing this upgrade?
A. Upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries, diskgroups, and filesystems on the OLTP server and advise
the customer to upgrade their billing system to the same version of Storage Foundation software.
B. Inform the customer that they must upgrade the OLTP and Billing servers at the same time.
C. Modify the Storage Foundation configuration to use space-saving snapshots instead of full snapshots.
D. Only upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries on the OLTP server, do not upgrade the diskgroup and
filesystem versions until after the Billing server has been upgraded.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have been asked to review a customer's VVR configuration, and found that the Rlink has the
following attributes: srlprot=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps What is the risk to the customer's
application if the SRL overflows?
A. Application writes will be stalled which may cause the front-end application to fail or hang.
B. The bandwidth_limit will be increased so the SRL can drain, and this may overload the network and
cause application performance problems.
C. The size of the SRL will be increased, leaving less space if the application volumes need to be
extended.
D. VVR will start to use the DCM, which requires a replay of the DCM, during which, Write Order Fidelity
for the application data is lost.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which order must the tasks be performed to initially synchronize VVR replication using
checkpoints? .
Start replication using vradmin -c checkpoint startrep . Run "vxrvg -c checkpoint
checkstart" . Run "vxrvg checkend" . Perform a block-level backup at the primary . Restore raw backup at
the secondary
A. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
C. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Answer: C

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NO.9 Why is it important to upgrade Storage Foundation diskgroups and filesystem versions after upgrading
the version of software on a system?
A. Storage Foundation will be unable to access the files residing on diskgroups and filesystems that have
an older version than the binaries.
B. Older diskgroup and filesystem versions are only supported during a rolling upgrade.
C. Upgrading the diskgroup and filesystem versions will enable the full capabilities of the product to be
deployed.
D. It eliminates warnings being sent to the console due to the out-of-date diskgroup and filesystem
versions.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two capabilities of Symantec Common Product Installer (CPI) are not supported by the
web-based installer for Storage Foundation 5.1? (Select two.)
A. installing Storage Foundation
B. uninstalling Storage Foundation
C. upgrading Storage Foundation
D. configuring Storage Foundation for Oracle RAC (SFRAC)
E. adding license keys for Storage Foundation
Answer: C, D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-134

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec EndPoint Protection 12.1 Technical Assessment)

Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

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NO.2 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms
like W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.4 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from
connecting to the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be
prevented from working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason
for this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: BD

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NO.7 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most
granular level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: CD

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NO.9 An administrator creates a new domain in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console. How
can the administrator copy policies from the old domain to the new domain?
A. Export the policy from the old domain and import it into the new domain.
B. Copy the policy in the old domain and paste the policy into the new domain.
C. Copy the old domain's policy XML file into the folder for the new domain.
D. Back up the old domain's database and restore it into the new domain.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint
Protection 12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and
Intrusion Prevention technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all
communications from an attacking host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

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NO.12 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection
layers against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

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13.Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the
performance of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

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NO.16 According to Symantec, what is a botnet?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

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NO.17 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to
bypass traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technology blocks such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

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NO.20 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 250-352

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 for Windows)

Questions et réponses: 171 Q&As

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NO.1 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.2 Solutions for which application are available in the Storage Foundation - High Availability Solution
Configuration Center?
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. Symantec Enterprise Vault
C. Symantec NetBackup
D. VMware vSphere
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the two site-based allocations for the site-aware allocation feature? (Select two.)
A. site-separated allocation
B. site-based allocation
C. site-specific allocation
D. site-confined allocation
E. site-campus allocation
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which agent is used to configure high availability for a cluster aware application service if a specific
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) agent is unavailable?
A. Proxy agent
B. GenericService agent
C. Process agent
D. ServiceMonitor agent
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the recommended number of NICs per system to configure a two node cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

Symantec examen   250-352   certification 250-352

NO.9 What is the default load balancing setting for the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) Active/Active mode?
A. Balanced Path
B. Round-robin
C. Weighted Paths
D. Least Blocks
Answer: C

certification Symantec   250-352   250-352   250-352   certification 250-352   250-352

NO.10 Which disk group type is required for Veritas Storage Foundation for Windows to work with a Microsoft
Failover Cluster?
A. Cluster Dynamic disk group
B. Private Dynamic disk group
C. Secondary Dynamic disk group
D. Primary Dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

Symantec   250-352   250-352 examen

NO.12 Which utility is used to back up the private region?
A. vxcbr
B. vxsnap
C. vxassist
D. vxdg
Answer: A

Symantec   250-352   250-352   250-352

NO.13 What is the minimum amount of memory required to make Microsoft Hyper-V virtual machines highly
available with Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 3GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Answer: C

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NO.14 What are two different ways to perform an upgrade for a Veritas cluster? (Select two.)
A. parallel upgrade
B. offline upgrade
C. online upgrade
D. rolling upgrade
E. tiered upgrade
Answer: A,D

Symantec   250-352   certification 250-352   250-352   250-352 examen

NO.15 An administrator is designing a cluster in a Microsoft Windows environment with three systems. Two of
the systems are on the 192.168.4.0 Class C public network. The third system is on the
192.169.0.0 Class B public network. The administrator needs to have Microsoft Windows clients access
the service groups independent of the system on which they are running. Which feature or change must
be incorporated into the design?
A. use the Lanman resource in each service group
B. change the servers so they all reside on the same subnet
C. change the servers so they all use the same subnet class
D. use the subnet resource in each service group
Answer: A

Symantec   250-352   250-352 examen   250-352

NO.16 Which utility is used to determine whether a network adapter maintains its connection status in a
system-defined variable?
A. getmac
B. getcomms
C. NICTest
D. ping
Answer: C

Symantec   certification 250-352   250-352   250-352   certification 250-352

NO.17 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

certification Symantec   250-352   250-352   250-352

NO.18 Which feature is used to improve initial mirror synchronization time?
A. FastResync
B. SmartSnap
C. FastSync
D. SmartMove
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

certification Symantec   250-352   250-352   250-352

NO.20 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 310-502

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified JCAPS Integrator)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following add-ons are required when attempting to exchange messages with a JMS
Message Server external to Java CAPS?
A.the JMS eWay
B.the eGate API Kit
C.JMS Message Selectors
D.this can be done programmatically without additional products
Correct:B

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NO.2 In order to have more than one activity executing concurrently in a Business Process, which
eInsight modeling element should be used?
A.the Event-Based Decision element
B.the Reply modeling element
C.the Join modeling element
D.the Flow modeling element
Correct:D

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NO.3 To utilize a component from one Project in another, you can: (Select all that apply.) _____
A.export the component from the source Project and import it to the target Project
B.copy the component from the source Project and paste it to the target Project
C.include the remote component in the Deployment Profile of the target Project
D.drag-and-drop the component onto the target Projects Connectivity Map
E.you can not share components among Projects
Correct:B D

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NO.4 During installation, the ProductList.sar file can be changed to update:_____
A.the components available to upload
B.the components available to download
C.the installed components
D.the registered components
Correct:A

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NO.5 What is the difference between undeploy and disable in the Enterprise Manager?
A.Undeploy temporarily stops the ear, Disable removes it from the domain.
B.Undeploy removes the ear from eManager, Disable doesnt.
C.Undeploy removes the ear file from the Domain, Disable stops it temporarily.
D.None of the Above.
Correct:C

certification SUN   310-502 examen   310-502 examen   310-502

NO.6 How can a Business Process be configured so that it is capable of responding to more than one
type of error at a time?
A.BPEL does not support the ability to catch multiple exceptions.
B.Create a scope and drag down as many Catch Named Exception elements as needed.
C.Create a catch block to handle as many exceptions as necessary.
D.Select Multi option in the Business Process error handling properties dialog.
Correct:B

certification SUN   310-502 examen   310-502 examen   310-502

NO.7 Which Java CAPS component determines the fields within a message that can be accessed by a
Java Collaboration?
A.Business Process
B.Connectivity Map
C.Object Type Definition
D.Activity
Correct:C

certification SUN   310-502 examen   310-502 examen   310-502

NO.8 What Java CAPS elements below are required for code to be Executed and Monitored in
Production? 1. Enterprise Manager 2. Enterprise Designer 3. Repository 4. UDDI Server 5. Domain
6. An .ear file
A.3, 2, 6 & 5 only.
B.4 to discover services, 3, 1 & 5.
C.4 to discover services, 6, 5 & 1.
D.1, 5 & 6 only.
E.3 to discover services, 5, 6 & 1.
Correct:C

certification SUN   310-502 examen   310-502 examen   310-502

NO.9 Java CAPS Documentation can be accessed: (Select all that apply) _____
A.by uploading the docs to the Repository and viewing them through the Enterprise Manager
B.by decompressing the capsDocs.sar file to a directory of your choice
C.in the installed tree structure on the Repository
D.from the help screen dialog box
E.from the Documentation CD
F.from the docs.sun.com website
Correct:A C F

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Code d'Examen: 310-083

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified Web Component Developer for J2EE 5)

Questions et réponses: 276 Q&As

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NO.1 <sl:item name="Bread" />

NO.2 Which statement is true about web container session management?
A. Access to session-scoped attributes is guaranteed to be thread-safe by the web container.
B. To activate URL rewriting, the developer must use the HttpServletResponse.setURLRewriting method.
C. If the web application uses HTTPS, then the web container may use the data on the HTTPS request
stream to identify the client.
D. The JSESSIONID cookie is stored permanently on the client so that a user may return to the web
application and the web container will rejoin that session.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are creating a JSP page to display a collection of data. This data can be displayed in several
different ways so the architect on your project decided to create a generic servlet that generates a
comma-delimited string so that various pages can render the data in different ways. This servlet takes on
request parameter: objectID. Assume that this servlet is mapped to the URL pattern: /WEB-INF/data.
In the JSP you are creating, you need to split this string into its elements separated by commas and
generate an HTML <ul> list from the data.
Which JSTL code snippet will accomplish this goal?
A. <c:import varReader='dataString' url='/WEB-INF/data'>
<c:param name='objectID' value='${currentOID}' />
</c:import>
<ul>
<c:forTokens items'${dataString.split(",")}' var='item'>
<li>${item}</li>
</c:forTokens>
</ul>
B. <c:import varReader='dataString' url='/WEB-INF/data'>
<c:param name='objectID' value='${currentOID}' />
</c:import>
<ul>
<c:forTokens items'${dataString}' delims=',' var='item'>
<li>${item}</li>
</c:forTokens>
</ul>
C. <c:import var='dataString' url='/WEB-INF/data'>
<c:param name='objectID' value='${currentOID}' />
</c:import>
<ul>
<c:forTokens items'${dataString.split(",")}' var='item'>
<li>${item}</li>
</c:forTokens>
</ul>
D. <c:import var='dataString' url='/WEB-INF/data'>
<c:param name='objectID' value='${currentOID}' />
</c:import>
<ul>
<c:forTokens items'${dataString}' delims=',' var='item'>
<li>${item}</li>
</c:forTokens>
</ul>
Answer: D

SUN examen   310-083   310-083   310-083 examen   310-083 examen

NO.4 <sl:item name="Eggs" />

NO.5 <sl:shoppingList>

NO.6 You have created a JSP that includes instance variables and a great deal of scriptlet code.
Unfortunately, after extensive load testing, you have discovered several race conditions in your JSP
scriptlet code. To fix these problems would require significant recoding, but you are already behind
schedule. Which JSP code snippet can you use to resolve these concurrency problems?
A. <%@ page isThreadSafe='false' %>
B. <%@ implements SingleThreadModel %>
C. <%! implements SingleThreadModel %>
D. <%@ page useSingleThreadModel='true' %>
E. <%@ page implements='SingleThreadModel' %>
Answer: A

certification SUN   310-083   certification 310-083

NO.7 Your management has required that all JSPs be created to generate XHTML-compliant content and to
facilitate that decision, you are required to create all JSPs using the JSP Document format. In the
reviewOrder.jspx page, you need to use several core JSTL tags to process the collection of order items in
the customer's shopping cart. Which JSP code snippets must you use in the reviewOrder.jspx page?
A. <html xmlns:jsp="http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page"
version="2.0">
<jsp:directive.taglib prefix="c"
uri="http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core" />
<!-- page content -->
</html>
B. <html xmlns:jsp="http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page"
version="2.0"
xmlns:c="http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core">
<!-- page content -->
</html>
C. <jsp:root xmlns:jsp="http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page"
version="2.0">
<jsp:directive.taglib prefix="c"
uri="http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core" />
<!-- page content -->
</jsp:root>
D. <jsp:root xmlns:jsp="http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page"
version="2.0"
xmlns:c="http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/core">
<!-- page content -->
</jsp:root>
Answer: D

SUN   310-083 examen   certification 310-083   certification 310-083   310-083

NO.8 Assume the scoped attribute priority does NOT yet exist. Which two create and set a new
request-scoped attribute priority to the value "medium"? (Choose two.)
A. ${priority = 'medium'}
B. ${requestScope['priority'] = 'medium'}
C. <c:set var="priority" value="medium" />
D. <c:set var="priority" scope="request">medium</c:set>
E. <c:set var="priority" value="medium" scope="request" />
F. <c:set property="priority" scope="request">medium</c:set>
G. <c:set property="priority" value="medium" scope="request" />
Answer: DE

SUN   310-083   310-083 examen

NO.9 </sl:shoppingList>
The tag handler for sl:shoppingList is ShoppingListTag and the tag handler for sl:item is ItemSimpleTag.
ShoppingListTag extends BodyTagSupport and ItemSimpleTag extends SimpleTagSupport.
Which is true?
A. ItemSimpleTag can find the enclosing instance of ShoppingListTag by calling getParent() and casting
the result to ShoppingListTag.
B. ShoppingListTag can find the child instances of ItemSimpleTag by calling super.getChildren() and
casting each to an ItemSimpleTag.
C. It is impossible for ItemSimpleTag and ShoppingListTag to find each other in a tag hierarchy because
one is a Simple tag and the other is a Classic tag.
D. ShoppingListTag can find the child instances of ItemSimpleTag by calling getChildren() on the
PageContext and casting each to an ItemSimpleTag.
E. ItemSimpleTag can find the enclosing instance of ShoppingListTag by calling findAncestorWithClass()
on the PageContext and casting the result to ShoppingListTag.
Answer: A

SUN   310-083   310-083   310-083   310-083 examen
11. Servlet A receives a request that it forwards to servlet B within another web application in the same
web container. Servlet A needs to share data with servlet B and that data must not be visible to other
servlets in A's web application. In which object can the data that A shares with B be stored?
A. HttpSession
B. ServletConfig
C. ServletContext
D. HttpServletRequest
E. HttpServletResponse
Answer: D

SUN   310-083 examen   certification 310-083   310-083   310-083
12. Your web site has many user-customizable features, for example font and color preferences on web
pages. Your IT department has already built a subsystem for user preferences using the Java SE
platform's lang.util.prefs package APIs, and you have been ordered to reuse this subsystem in your web
application. You need to create an event listener that constructs the preferences factory and stores it in
the application scope for later use. Furthermore, this factory requires that the URL to a database must
be declared in the deployment descriptor like this:
42. <context-param>
43. <param-name>prefsDbURL</param-name>
44. <param-value>
45. jdbc:pointbase:server://dbhost:4747/prefsDB
46. </param-value>
47. </context-param>
Which partial listener class will accomplish this goal?
A. public class PrefsFactoryInitializer implements ContextListener {
public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent e) {
ServletContext ctx = e.getContext();
String prefsURL = ctx.getParameter("prefsDbURL");
PreferencesFactory myFactory = makeFactory(prefsURL);
ctx.putAttribute("myPrefsFactory", myFactory);
}
// more code here
}
B. public class PrefsFactoryInitializer implements ServletContextListener {
public void contextCreated(ServletContext ctx) {
String prefsURL = ctx.getInitParameter("prefsDbURL");
PreferencesFactory myFactory = makeFactory(prefsURL);
ctx.setAttribute("myPrefsFactory", myFactory);
}
// more code here
}
C. public class PrefsFactoryInitializer implements ServletContextListener {
public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent e) {
ServletContext ctx = e.getServletContext();
String prefsURL = ctx.getInitParameter("prefsDbURL");
PreferencesFactory myFactory = makeFactory(prefsURL);
ctx.setAttribute("myPrefsFactory", myFactory);
}
// more code here
}
D. public class PrefsFactoryInitializer implements ContextListener {
public void contextCreated(ServletContext ctx) {
String prefsURL = ctx.getParameter("prefsDbURL");
PreferencesFactory myFactory = makeFactory(prefsURL);
ctx.putAttribute("myPrefsFactory", myFactory);
}
// more code here
}
Answer: C

certification SUN   310-083   310-083
13. A developer wants a web application to be notified when the application is about to be shut down.
Which two actions are necessary to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. include a listener directive in a JSP page
B. configure a listener in the TLD file using the <listener> element
C. include a <servlet-destroy> element in the web application deployment descriptor
D. configure a listener in the application deployment descriptor, using the <listener> element
E. include a class implementing ServletContextListener as part of the web application deployment
F. include a class implementing ContextDestroyedListener as part of the web application deployment
G. include a class implementing HttpSessionAttributeListener as part of the web application deployment
Answer: DE

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14. You want to create a filter for your web application and your filter will implement javax.servlet.Filter.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Your filter class must implement an init method and a destroy method.
B. Your filter class must also implement javax.servlet.FilterChain.
C. When your filter chains to the next filter, it should pass the same arguments it received in its doFilter
method.
D. The method that your filter invokes on the object it received that implements javax.servlet.FilterChain
can invoke either another filter or a servlet.
E. Your filter class must implement a doFilter method that takes, among other things, an
HTTPServletRequest object and an HTTPServletResponse object.
Answer: AD

SUN   310-083 examen   310-083
15. Which three are true about the HttpServletRequestWrapper class? (Choose three.)
A. The HttpServletRequestWrapper is an example of the Decorator pattern.
B. The HttpServletRequestWrapper can be used to extend the functionality of a servlet request.
C. A subclass of HttpServletRequestWrapper CANNOT modify the behavior of the getReader method.
D. An HttpServletRequestWrapper may be used only by a class implementing the javax.servlet.Filter
interface.
E. An HttpServletRequestWrapper CANNOT be used on the request passed to the
RequestDispatcher.include method.
F. An HttpServletRequestWrapper may modify the header of a request within an object implementing the
javax.servlet.Filter interface.
Answer: ABF

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NO.10 Given the definition of MyServlet:
11. public class MyServlet extends HttpServlet {
12. public void service(HttpServletRequest request,
13. HttpServletResponse response)
14. throws ServletException, IOException {
15. HttpSession session = request.getSession();
16 session.setAttribute("myAttribute","myAttributeValue");
17. session.invalidate();
18. response.getWriter().println("value=" +

NO.11 Assume that a news tag library contains the tags lookup and item:
lookup Retrieves the latest news headlines and executes the tag body once for each
headline. Exposes a NESTED page-scoped attribute called headline of type com.example.Headline
containing details for that headline.
item Outputs the HTML for a single news headline. Accepts an attribute info of type
com.example.Headline containing details for the headline to be rendered.Which snippet of JSP code
returns the latest news headlines in an HTML table, one per row?
A. <table>
<tr>
<td>
<news:lookup />
<news:item info="${headline}" />
</td>
</tr>
</table>
B. <news:lookup />
<table>
<tr>
<td><news:item info="${headline}" /></td>
</tr>
</table>
C. <table>
<news:lookup>
<tr>
<td><news:item info="${headline}" /></td>
</tr>
</news:lookup>
</table>
D. <table>
<tr>
<news:lookup>
<td><news:item info="${headline}" /></td>
</news:lookup>
</tr>
</table>
Answer: C

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NO.12 To take advantage of the capabilities of modern browsers that use web standards, such as XHTML and
CSS, your web application is being converted from simple JSP pages to JSP Document format. However,
one of your JSPs, /scripts/screenFunctions.jsp, generates a JavaScript file. This file is included in several
web forms to create screen-specific validation functions and are included in these pages with the
following statement:
10. <head>
11. <script src='/scripts/screenFunctions.jsp'
12. language='javascript'
13. type='application/javascript'> </script>
14. </head>
15. <!-- body of the web form -->
Which JSP code snippet declares that this JSP Document is a JavaScript file?
A. <%@ page contentType='application/javascript' %>
B. <jsp:page contentType='application/javascript' />
C. <jsp:document contentType='application/javascript' />
D. <jsp:directive.page contentType='application/javascript' />
E. No declaration is needed because the web form XHTML page already declares the MIME type of the
/scripts/screenFunctions.jsp file in the <script> tag.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which JSTL code snippet can be used to perform URL rewriting?
A. <a href='<c:url url="foo.jsp"/>' />
B. <a href='<c:link url="foo.jsp"/>' />
C. <a href='<c:url value="foo.jsp"/>' />
D. <a href='<c:link value="foo.jsp"/>' />
Answer: C

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NO.14 A developer wants to make a name attribute available to all servlets associated with a particular user,
across multiple requests from that user, from the same browser instance.
Which two provide this capability from within a tag handler? (Choose two.)
A. pageContext.setAttribute("name", theValue);
B. pageContext.setAttribute("name", getSession());
C. pageContext.getRequest().setAttribute("name", theValue);
D. pageContext.getSession().setAttribute("name", theValue);
E. pageContext.setAttribute("name", theValue,
PageContext.PAGE_SCOPE);
F. pageContext.setAttribute("name", theValue,
PageContext.SESSION_SCOPE);
Answer: DF

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NO.15 The sl:shoppingList and sl:item tags output a shopping list to the response and are used as follows:

NO.16 You have built a collection of custom tags for your web application. The TLD file is located in the file:
/WEB-INF/myTags.xml. You refer to these tags in your JSPs using the symbolic name: myTags. Which
deployment descriptor element must you use to make this link between the symbolic name and the TLD
file name?
A. <taglib>
<name>myTags</name>
<location>/WEB-INF/myTags.xml</location>
</taglib>
B. <tags>
<name>myTags</name>
<location>/WEB-INF/myTags.xml</location>
</tags>
C. <tags>
<tags-uri>myTags</taglib-uri>
<tags-location>/WEB-INF/myTags.xml</tags-location>
</tags>
D. <taglib>
<taglib-uri>myTags</taglib-uri>
<taglib-location>/WEB-INF/myTags.xml</taglib-location>
</taglib>
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which implicit object is used in a JSP page to retrieve values associated with <context-param> entries
in the deployment descriptor?
A. config
B. request
C. session
D. application
Answer: D

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
The attribute "name" has a value of "Foo,"
What is the result if this tag handler's tag is invoked?
A. Foo
B. done
C. Foodone
D. An exception is thrown at runtime.
E. No output is produced from this code.
F. Compilation fails because of an error in this code.
Answer: A

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NO.19 <sl:item name="Milk" />

NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
The resource requested by the RequestDispatcher is available and implemented by the
DestinationServlet.
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime by SourceServlet.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime by DestinationServlet.
C. Only "hello from dest" appears in the response output stream.
D. Both "hello from source" and "hello from dest" appear in the response output stream.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which three are true about TLD files? (Choose three.)
A. The web container recognizes TLD files placed in any subdirectory of WEB-INF.
B. When deployed inside a JAR file, TLD files must be in the META-INF directory, or a subdirectory of it.
C. A tag handler's attribute must be included in the TLD file only if the attribute can accept request-time
expressions.
D. The web container can generate an implicit TLD file for a tag library comprised of both simple tag
handlers and tag files.
E. The web container can automatically extend the tag library map described in a web.xml file by including
entries extracted from the web application's TLD files.
Answer: ABE

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NO.22 Given the JSP code:
<% request.setAttribute("foo", "bar"); %>
and the Classic tag handler code:
5. public int doStartTag() throws JspException {
6. // insert code here
7. // return int
8. }
Assume there are no other "foo" attributes in the web application.
Which invocation on the pageContext object, inserted at line 6, assigns "bar" to the variable x?
A. String x = (String) pageContext.getAttribute("foo");
B. String x = (String) pageContext.getRequestScope("foo");
C. It is NOT possible to access the pageContext object from within doStartTag.
D. String x = (String)
pageContext.getRequest().getAttribute("foo");
E. String x = (String) pageContext.getAttribute("foo",
PageContext.ANY_SCOPE);
Answer: D

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NO.23 As a convenience feature, your web pages include an Ajax request every five minutes to a special
servlet that monitors the age of the user's session. The client-side JavaScript that handles the Ajax
callback displays a message on the screen as the session ages. The Ajax call does NOT pass any
cookies, but it passes the session ID in a request parameter called sessionID. In addition, assume that
your webapp keeps a hashmap of session objects by the ID. Here is a partial implementation of this
servlet:
10. public class SessionAgeServlet extends HttpServlet {
11. public void service(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse) throws IOException {
12. String sessionID = request.getParameter("sessionID");
13. HttpSession session = getSession(sessionID);
14. long age = // your code here
15. response.getWriter().print(age);
16. } ... // more code here
47. }
Which code snippet on line 14, will determine the age of the session?
A. session.getMaxInactiveInterval();
B. session.getLastAccessed().getTime() - session.getCreationTime().getTime();
C. session.getLastAccessedTime().getTime() - session.getCreationTime().getTime();
D. session.getLastAccessed() - session.getCreationTime();
E. session.getMaxInactiveInterval() - session.getCreationTime();
F. session.getLastAccessedTime() - session.getCreationTime();
Answer: F

certification SUN   310-083 examen   310-083   310-083

NO.24 session.getAttribute("myAttribute"));

NO.25 }
What is the result when a request is sent to MyServlet?
A. An IllegalStateException is thrown at runtime.
B. An InvalidSessionException is thrown at runtime.
C. The string "value=null" appears in the response stream.
D. The string "value=myAttributeValue" appears in the response stream.
Answer: A

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19. You need to store a Java long primitive attribute, called customerOID, into the session scope. Which
two code snippets allow you to insert this value into the session? (Choose two.)
A. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setAttribute("customerOID", new Long(customerOID));
B. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setLongAttribute("customerOID", new Long(customerOID));
C. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setAttribute("customerOID", customerOID);
D. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setNumericAttribute("customerOID", new Long(customerOID));
E. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setLongAttribute("customerOID", customerOID);
F. long customerOID = 47L;
session.setNumericAttribute("customerOID", customerOID);
Answer: AC

SUN   310-083   310-083   310-083 examen   310-083   310-083 examen
20. A developer for the company web site has been told that users may turn off cookie support in their
browsers. What must the developer do to ensure that these customers can still use the web application?
A. The developer must ensure that every URL is properly encoded using the appropriate URL rewriting
APIs.
B. The developer must provide an alternate mechanism for managing sessions and abandon the
HttpSession mechanism entirely.
C. The developer can ignore this issue. Web containers are required to support automatic URL rewriting
when cookies are not supported.
D. The developer must add the string id=<sessionid> to the end of every URL to ensure that the
conversation with the browser can continue.
Answer: A

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21. Your web application requires the adding and deleting of many session attributes during a complex
use case. A bug report has come in that indicates that an important session attribute is being deleted too
soon and a NullPointerException is being thrown several interactions after the fact. You have decided to
create a session event listener that will log when attributes are being deleted so you can track down when
the attribute is erroneously being deleted.
Which listener class will accomplish this debugging goal?
A. Create an HttpSessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeDeleted method and log the
attribute name using the getName method on the event object.
B. Create an HttpSessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeRemoved method and log the
attribute name using the getName method on the event object.
C. Create an SessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeRemoved method and log the
attribute name using the getAttributeName method on the event object.
D. Create an SessionAttributeListener class and implement the attributeDeleted method and log the
attribute name using the getAttributeName method on the event object.
Answer: B

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NO.26 You are building a web application that will be used throughout the European Union; therefore, it has
significant internationalization requirements. You have been tasked to create a custom tag that generates
a message using the java.text.MessageFormat class. The tag will take the resourceKey attribute and a
variable number of argument attributes with the format, arg<N>. Here is an example use of this tag and its
output:
<t:message resourceKey='diskFileMsg' arg0='MyDisk' arg1='1247' />
generates:
The disk "MyDisk" contains 1247 file(s).
Which Simple tag class definition accomplishes this goal of handling a variable number of tag attributes?
A. public class MessageTag extends SimpleTagSupport
implements VariableAttributes {
private Map attributes = new HashMap();
public void setVariableAttribute(String uri,
String name, Object value) {
this.attributes.put(name, value);
}
// more tag handler methods
}
B. The Simple tag model does NOT support a variable number of attributes.
C. public class MessageTag extends SimpleTagSupport
implements DynamicAttributes {
private Map attributes = new HashMap();
public void putAttribute(String name, Object value) {
this.attributes.put(name, value);
}
// more tag handler methods
}
D. public class MessageTag extends SimpleTagSupport
implements VariableAttributes {
private Map attributes = new HashMap();
public void putAttribute(String name, Object value) {
this.attributes.put(name, value);
}
// more tag handler methods
}
E. public class MessageTag extends SimpleTagSupport
implements DynamicAttributes {
private Map attributes = new HashMap();
public void setDynamicAttribute(String uri, String name,
Object value) {
this.attributes.put(name, value);
}
// more tag handler methods
}
Answer: E

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NO.27 }

NO.28 One of the use cases in your web application uses many session-scoped attributes. At the end of the
use case, you want to clear out this set of attributes from the session object. Assume that this static
variable holds this set of attribute names:
201. private static final Set<String> USE_CASE_ATTRS;
202. static {
203. USE_CASE_ATTRS.add("customerOID");
204. USE_CASE_ATTRS.add("custMgrBean");
205. USE_CASE_ATTRS.add("orderOID");
206. USE_CASE_ATTRS.add("orderMgrBean");
207. }
Which code snippet deletes these attributes from the session object?
A. session.removeAll(USE_CASE_ATTRS);
B. for ( String attr : USE_CASE_ATTRS ) {
session.remove(attr);
}
C. for ( String attr : USE_CASE_ATTRS ) {
session.removeAttribute(attr);
}
D. for ( String attr : USE_CASE_ATTRS ) {
session.deleteAttribute(attr);
}
E. session.deleteAllAttributes(USE_CASE_ATTRS);
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which two statements about tag files are true? (Choose two.)
A. Classic tag handlers and tag files CANNOT reside in the same tag library.
B. A file named foo.tag, located in /WEB-INF/tags/bar, is recognized as a tag file by the container.
C. A file named foo.tag, bundled in a JAR file but NOT defined in a TLD, triggers a container translation
error.
D. A file named foo.tag, located in a web application's root directory, is recognized as a tag file by the
container.
E. If files foo1.tag and foo2.tag both reside in /WEB-INF/tags/bar, the container will consider them part of
the same tag library.
Answer: BE

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NO.30 Given the JSP code:
10. <html>
11. <body>
12. <jsp:useBean id='customer' class='com.example.Customer' />
13. Hello, ${customer.title} ${customer.lastName}, welcome
14. to Squeaky Beans, Inc.
15. </body>
16. </html>
Which three types of JSP code are used? (Choose three.)
A. Java code
B. template text
C. scripting code
D. standard action
E. expression language
Answer: BDE

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Code d'Examen: 090-078

Nom d'Examen: SCO (UNIXWARE 7 FOR MASTER ACE V10A1)

Questions et réponses: 81 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement concerning UnixWare 7 anonymous FTP is FALSE?
A. Anonymous FTP can be configured with the SCOadmin FTP Server Manager.
B. Anonymous FTP grants limited file transfer access to unauthenticated users.
C. You can limit how many simultaneous anonymous FTP users are allowed.
D. The address of the anonymous FTP client system is NOT recorded on the server.
Answer: D

SCO   090-078   090-078

NO.2 How many octets are in an IP address?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32
Answer: B

SCO examen   090-078   090-078   090-078   090-078

NO.3 Which statement concerning UnixWare 7 anonymous FTP is FALSE?
A. Anonymous FTP can be configured with the SCOadmin FTP Server Manager.
B. Anonymous FTP grants limited file transfer access to unauthenticated users.
C. You can limit how many simultaneous anonymous FTP users are allowed.
D. The address of the anonymous FTP client system is NOT recorded on the server.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the default filesystem type used to create a filesystem in UnixWare 7?
A. AFS (Acer Fast Filesystem)
B. vxfs (Veritas Filesystem)
C. S5 (System V Filesystem)
D. UFS (Extended S5 Filesystem)
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does the following command line do: tar tv
A. It shows the type of archive device.
B. It shows the time when an archive was created.
C. It updates the time stamp on the default tar(1) device.
D. It displays the table of contents of the default tar(1) device.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the maximum vxfs (VERITAS) filesystem size?
A. 2 terabytes
B. 1 terabyte
C. 2 gigabytes
D. 1 gigabyte
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which is an example of a valid Class A address?
A. 119.32.259.134
B. 126.80.1.96
C. 129.222.101.17
D. 192.127.212.88
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following can you NOT use the Boot Command Processor (BCP) to accomplish?
A. Display or change default boot parameters
B. Enter single-user state
C. Load another UNIX kernel
D. Start the print service
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which command can you use to display the attributes of any disk device?
A. devattr(1M)
B. displaypkg(1M)
C. diskcfg(1M)
D. dodisk(1M)
Answer: A

SCO examen   090-078   090-078 examen   090-078

NO.10 Which two serial device files support software flow control?
A. /dev/term/ 00m and /dev/term/ 00h
B. /dev/term/ 00m and /dev/term/ 00s
C. /dev/term/ 00m and /dev/term/ 00t
D. /dev/term/ 00s and /dev/term/ 00t
Answer: D

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